Darat said:
It does raise an unsettling thought. Consider all the apparent interest by the Pakistani homeopaths (who have recently posted here) in the effectiveness of low dilution (for homeopathic) remedies, I wonder are some of them using real medicines in their preparations?
(We know veterinary homeopaths in the UK have done this and then claimed the results were down to homeopathic remedies – isn’t that correct Rolfe?)
There is evidence to that effect. However, the situation is a little different. In that case the homoeopath wasn't claiming that the real drug was homoeopathic, he was treating with some content-free homoeopathic nonsense, and
also slipping in a little injection of a powerful corticosteroid, then attributing the resulting improvement to the homoeopathy rather than to the corticosteroid - which the owner of the animal wasn't always even aware had been given.
In the EU, nothing is allowed to be sold as "homoeopathic" unless it is so dilute that it can be relied on to have no (adverse) effects. Usually 6X is the lowest dilution/potency allowed. So they can speculate all they like about 1X or 2X, the fact is that such preparations aren't allowed as "homoeopathy" in many countries, including Germany, the home of the discipline.
Also, "does it work at 1X or 2X?" Who knows? Define"it" (that is, what remedy are you talking about?), and define "works" (that is, are you talking about curing disease?) For the vast majority of homoeopathic plant-based nostrums, the simple answer is no, no active ingredient has ever been shown. And in general, no, because there is no evidence that like cures like.
Only if they're going to assert that 1X prednisolone is good for eczema, or 1X amoxycillin is good for an abscess, might we be in the territory of "works". However, we wouldn't be in the territory of homoeopathy.
Rolfe.
Why is it that someone has always quoted my bad spelling before I get round to fixing it?