Materialists......

Depends on your definition of mind. What implicit assumptions does your definition contain?

That is a good question, which should answered by I less than three logic, rather than me. I've explained what I mean by mind. I mean subjective experiences. Period.

It also lacks the awareness of the direct experience, the perception of the awareness, the realization of the perception, and all the other turtles....

...except the top one.
 
What does "nothing is mortal" or its negation have to do with the conclusion, which is "Socrates is mortal"?

"Nothing is mortal" is the (logical) equivalent of Robin's "Everything is physical". It is an assumption of a claim which contradicts the conclusion of the argument. In the socrates case, we can all agree this assumption is wrong, and that it doesn't have anything to do with the validity of the argument and that (c) does not imply the original argument assumed its conclusion. Even if you think the corresponding line in the zombie case is actually true, it is nevertheless the case that it still has nothing to do with the validity of the argument and does not imply that the zombie argument assumes its conclusion. Instead, it implies that something is wrong with one of the premises.

What are you using as the conclusion to the Socrates problem?

"Socrates is mortal".

In this post, LW used "Socrates is mortal" as the conclusion:

http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=1800010#post1800010

Yet LW also seems to be talking about "something is not mortal" as the conclusion.

~~ Paul

No, he is only talking about "Socrates is Mortal" - but if Socrates is mortal, then something is mortal. In his example, the equivalent of a Robin comes along and wants to conclude "nothing is mortal", which has to include Socrates.
 
Last edited:
LW,

Thanks for reading the paper. Sorry if it gave you palpitations. I will carefully read through your reply before offering any response. I may not get back to you till tomorrow, since its friday night and I'm likely to be too drunk later this evening.

Meanwhile, I will assume your non-response to my explanations about the Socrates example indicates you are in agreement with them.

Geoff.
 
Does the phrase "for all intents and purposes" mean anything to you?
I can help here. That's code wannabe materialists use to pretend they aren't silly dualists.


Belz... said:
I never admitted that science couldn't answer everything.
What answer does science provide you to, say, "Should we use the bombs science has provided to bomb Iran, Syria, and the Bekaa Valley back to the stone age?"?
 
Last edited:
I can help here. That's code wannabe materialists use to pretend they aren't silly dualists.



What answer does science provide you to, say, "Should we use the bombs science has provided to bomb Iran, Syria, and the Bekaa Valley back to the stone age?"?


Well I decided to read one of your posts for once. The first part is just idiotic, but the second part is rather astute, since it points out the one useful thing philosophy can do and that science can't (although it is extremely good at informing the decision maker)...and that is answer ethical questions. I've probably forgotten some other useful application of philosophy, but it certainly isn't what is being discussed in this thread.
 
Well I decided to read one of your posts for once. The first part is just idiotic, but the second part is rather astute, since it points out the one useful thing philosophy can do and that science can't (although it is extremely good at informing the decision maker)...and that is answer ethical questions. I've probably forgotten some other useful application of philosophy, but it certainly isn't what is being discussed in this thread.

Why do you think it is that philosophy can answer ethical questions?

Why do you think it is that science cannot answer ethical questions?

And for the record, the first line of his post made perfect sense. It was an absolutely typical example of wannabe materialists leaving enough space in what they are claiming to allow the dualism back in.
 
Geoff said:
No, he is only talking about "Socrates is Mortal" - but if Socrates is mortal, then something is mortal. In his example, the equivalent of a Robin comes along and wants to conclude "nothing is mortal", which has to include Socrates.
Sorry, I still don't understand. Never mind. When a person (me) says that he has lost track of the argument, it's helpful if you present the whole argument again. If I can't piece it together from 2,701 posts, I can't piece it together with an additional partial explanation, either.

all men are mortal
Socrates is a man
therefore, Socrates is mortal
therefore, nothing is mortal ?

~~ Paul
 
Last edited:
Why do you think it is that philosophy can answer ethical questions?

Why do you think it is that science cannot answer ethical questions?

And for the record, the first line of his post made perfect sense. It was an absolutely typical example of wannabe materialists leaving enough space in what they are claiming to allow the dualism back in.

Ok well maybe philosophy can't even do that then...? Science can't answer ethical questions because they are based in a conceptual framework and not reality (that probably isn't the best way of putting it).

And, no, what it is an example of is someone who doesn't value pointless or imaginary ideas, concepts and wordplay. (again, probably not the best way of putting it, but it certainly has nothing to do with leaving any space for anything)
 
Sorry, I still don't understand. Never mind. When a person (me) says that he has lost track of the argument, it's helpful if you present the whole argument again. If I can't piece it together from 2,701 posts, I can't piece it together with an additional partial explanation, either.

~~ Paul

Why are you giving up? :(

What don't you understand? :(

If you understand the Socrates example (which is 4 lines long, not 2,700 posts) then why can't you understand the zombie example, which is also 4 lines long.

(a) All men are mortal. (assumes that men can exist, and that we can agree what "mortal" means)
(b) Socrates is a man. (assumes that Socrates is a man).

Conclusion: "Socrates is mortal".

Have we now committed the fallacy of assuming our conclusion? By the reasoning Robin uses, we have. Because if we add the sentence:

(c) Nothing is mortal (assumes that nothing is mortal).

to the set we get an inconsistency.

There is no assumption of conclusion in a,b and the conclusion. However, adding (c) does assume the conclusion "nothing is mortal". There is an inconsistency between (c) and the previous argument. But this (quite clearly in this case) does not mean that the previous argument has assumed its conclusion. It may just mean that (c) is wrong. If (c) is correct, then it means that there must be something else wrong with the argument. Either not all men are mortal or Socrates isn't a man.

So.......

--------------------
(a) P-zombies are physically identical to humans but mindless. (assumes p-zombies are a meaningfull concept - that they can exist or are possible)
(b) Humans have minds. (assumes humans can agree that they have minds, assumes "mind" to mean "subjective experiences". Most people would accept both of these.)

And the conclusion that we get is "minds are non-physical". Have we now committed the fallacy of assuming our conclusion? By the reasoning Robin used above, we have. Because if we add the sentence:

(c) Everything is physical. (assumes that physicalism is true - this is an assertion of the truth of physicalism).

...then we get a contradiction.
-----------------------------

There is no assumption of conclusion in a,b and the conclusion. However, adding (c) does assume the conclusion "physicalism is true". There is an inconsistency between (c) and the previous argument. But this does not mean that the previous argument has assumed its conclusion. It may just mean that (c) is wrong. If (c) is correct, then it means that there must be something else wrong with the argument. Either p-zombies are a meaningless concept and cannot sensibly be defined or are impossible, or the claim "humans have minds" is incorrect. [edit] And just for the record, anyone thinking of denying the possible existence of zombies based on the argument "If materialism is true, zombies can't exist", they would STILL be assuming their conclusion. It would be no different to saying "If nothing is mortal, Socrates cannot be a man".

Overall conclusion:

LW is correct. Robin is assuming his conclusion ("everything is physical"). Geoff is neither assuming his conclusion (as claimed by Robin) nor is he assuming p-zombies are conceptually possible (as originally claimed by LW, but only because he hadn't been followng the whole thread).

If you can't understand this, then it's not surprising that I've had so many troubles in the past trying to get you to stop assuming your conclusion and stop falsely accusing me of the same......

But I don't understand why you don't understand. :(
 
That is a good question, which should answered by I less than three logic, rather than me. I've explained what I mean by mind. I mean subjective experiences. Period.
Just private behavior? Wow, my definition includes the public behavior from which we learned the labels.

So, if your definition of mind is private behavior, why is it that you object to my definition? Could it be that you have other assumptions inherent in your phrase "subjective experiences"?
...except the top one.
Which was inferred circularly from the private behavior. It is utterly superfluous. If it is necessary, so are all the other turtles.
 
Sorry, I still don't understand. Never mind. When a person (me) says that he has lost track of the argument, it's helpful if you present the whole argument again. If I can't piece it together from 2,701 posts, I can't piece it together with an additional partial explanation, either.

-------------------
all men are mortal
Socrates is a man
therefore, Socrates is mortal
--------------------

....is a valid argument, which does not assume its conclusion.

-------------------
therefore, nothing is mortal ?
------------------

No. This obviously doesn't follow from the previous line. But it is exactly what Robin tries to do when he says "If materialism is true then minds must be physical." He posits a new proposition ("everything is physical") and then announces that there is a contradiction with the conclusion of the argument. He claims that this indicates that the argument must have assumed its conclusion. It would be like saying "If nothing is mortal then not all men are mortal", then claiming that the Socrates example assumes the conclusion that Socrates is mortal, contradicting the new proposition.
 
Just private behavior?

Is there something wrong with your reading ability, or are you incapable of attacking anything but strawmen?

So, if your definition of mind is private behavior....

Only if you can't read, Mercutio.

, why is it that you object to my definition?

Because your definition is "behaviour" and mine isn't?

Could it be that you have other assumptions inherent in your phrase "subjective experiences"?

Erm......are you suggested I assumed "subjective experience" actually means "subjective experience", cos it sounds like it..... :oldroll:

Which was inferred circularly from the private behavior. It is utterly superfluous. If it is necessary, so are all the other turtles.

That depends on the nature of the first turtle.
 
Yes there is. It's here:

That is an explicit contradiction.
Sorry, that's correct, but given the definitions you supplied before, the conclusion that "minds are not physical" was unjustified. By the definitions you supplied, a p-zombie could have just been a brain dead human, which doesn't show "minds are not physical"

I think you want to argue that p-zombie are impossible, in your case via the argument that something which lacked subjective experience couldn't possibly behave like a human. This is a reasonable objection but it does not make any difference to this demonstration about who was assuming their conclusion.
It does if your definition of mind includes the assumption that it is something not physical.
It also has some important consequences, since you appear to be claiming that not only can you distinguish between a brain process and a mind, but also that minds are causally efficacious. Is that what you want to claim?
No, I didn't say you can distinguish between a brain process and a mind, nor am I claiming that minds are causally efficacious, because I am not equating minds to subjective experience. I said your definition of mind contains more than just subjective experience, and that a p-zombie would still have subjective experience. I am claiming that if something can not experience (detect) the external world it can not respond interactively with it. If we don't know how it is detecting it, and can't extract the information without the p-zombie telling us, that experience is subjective.

Sure. But you could program a computer attached to a video camera to tell you when a red object had been placed before it. Does it follow that the computer now has a mind?
If mind equals subjective experience then no. This would be more of an objective experience since we know exactly how it all works, and could extract the information from the computer without the computer telling us. Replace the computer with a self-building and changing neural network and the program with learned behavior of associating the word red with that particular color when detected then it would be subjective again. Thus, would have a mind by your definition.

It is different because in the case of ourselves we know that in addition to mindless data-processing, there is also the direct experience associated with seeing something red. The computer needs no such thing and almost certainly lacks it.

Geoff
We know there is more than mindless data-processing? We can detect the color red, but I'd say that detection seems like mindless data-processing. We can recall what word we've associated with that color, again seems like mindless data-processing. Sound, same as seeing. I don't see where we have anything more than mindless data-processing. I think you just believe there is more than data-processing.
 
Geoff said:
No. This obviously doesn't follow from the previous line. But it is exactly what Robin tries to do when he says "If materialism is true then minds must be physical." He posits a new proposition ("everything is physical") and then announces that there is a contradiction with the conclusion of the argument. He claims that this indicates that the argument must have assumed its conclusion. It would be like saying "If nothing is mortal then not all men are mortal", then claiming that the Socrates example assumes the conclusion that Socrates is mortal, contradicting the new proposition.
Geoff, please. Present the entire argument, including Robin's additional conclusion, why you think he added the conclusion, and so forth. Although here you say he added a proposition, not a conclusion.

I'm begging you to give me the entire thing in one post.

~~ Paul
 
Geoff said:
If you can't understand this, then it's not surprising that I've had so many troubles in the past trying to get you to stop assuming your conclusion and stop falsely accusing me of the same......
The problem is that I can't remember the argument. Please just accuse me of having a memory problem, get it over with, and then give me the entire argument in one post.

~~ Paul
 
Is there something wrong with your reading ability, or are you incapable of attacking anything but strawmen?

Only if you can't read, Mercutio.

Because your definition is "behaviour" and mine isn't?

Erm......are you suggested I assumed "subjective experience" actually means "subjective experience", cos it sounds like it..... :oldroll:
Wonderful! Now we're getting somewhere! Since, to you, there is obviously a huge difference between "subjective experience" and "private behavior", would you please let the rest of us know what it is? That is the very crux of the matter, Geoff. What is "subjective experience" other than the things you do which others cannot, even in principle, see? Thinking, remembering, feeling...Those things are all within the definition of private behavior, and yet you deny that this is what you mean by subjective experience. So...what else is there? I am overjoyed that it is obvious to you, because I honestly cannot see it.
 
What answer does science provide you to, say, "Should we use the bombs science has provided to bomb Iran, Syria, and the Bekaa Valley back to the stone age?"?

I don't what answer it provides. Maybe you should ask a theoretical society of intelligent computers. Unlike DreadNik, I contend that there CAN be scientific answers to ethical questions, though I wouldn't presume to know them.
 
ILT3L

Sorry, that's correct, but given the definitions you supplied before, the conclusion that "minds are not physical" was unjustified. By the definitions you supplied, a p-zombie could have just been a brain dead human, which doesn't show "minds are not physical"

OK, but this is not particularly relevant because you can just specify "living, healthy human".

I think you want to argue that p-zombie are impossible, in your case via the argument that something which lacked subjective experience couldn't possibly behave like a human. This is a reasonable objection but it does not make any difference to this demonstration about who was assuming their conclusion.

It does if your definition of mind includes the assumption that it is something not physical.

You've just repeate Robin's error again.

It does not contain that assumption. It involves the assumption that "mind" means "subjective experience" (which it generally does, and if you insist it doesn't then we are just going to insert "subjective experiences" for "mind" and you are left with exactly the same situation). Compare the two examples. If you think I have assumed my conclusion in the zombie argument, do you think it is also valid to say that the Socrates example assumes it conclusion? Where's the difference?

No, I didn't say you can distinguish between a brain process and a mind, nor am I claiming that minds are causally efficacious, because I am not equating minds to subjective experience.

Then all that happens is the argument changes to:

(a) P-zombies are physically identical to humans but lack subjective experiences.
(b) Humans have subjective experiences.

And the conclusion that we get is "subjective experiences are non-physical".

You are now also making a carbon-copy duplicate of the error Kevin Lowe always makes . You've redefined "mind" to mean "brain process" but then still allowed "subjective experiences" to refer to what "mind" usually means. In Kevin's case, when he is challenged on this, he will then say "But subjective experiences are brain processes too." You can send him around this circle over and over and over again and he will never figure out what he's doing wrong. He just ends up with seven different words for "mind", all of which have been redefined to mean "brain process". Why not just stick with "mind"? The only way out of the loop is to deny there are any such things as "Minds" or "subjective experiences" in the first place. This is what Mercutio tries to do, but even he can't do it consistently.

I said your definition of mind contains more than just subjective experience, and that a p-zombie would still have subjective experience.

That sentence contains a contradiction. You cannot have a p-zombie which has subjective experiences. P-zombies, by definition, don't have such things.

I am claiming that if something can not experience (detect) the external world it can not respond interactively with it.

Well that is plain crazy. What do you think is happening when you play a video game? Isn't it responding interactively with you? Does this mean it has subjective experiences?

If we don't know how it is detecting it, and can't extract the information without the p-zombie telling us, that experience is subjective.

But surely we can monitor its p-brain and figure out how it is detecting it. Science knows how brains detect external objects. Why not for the p-zombie?

Sure. But you could program a computer attached to a video camera to tell you when a red object had been placed before it. Does it follow that the computer now has a mind?

If mind equals subjective experience then no.

OK, then your analogy fails.

This would be more of an objective experience.....

What is one of those? I've never heard of the term "objective experience". Personally, I'd reserve such things for God alone. Only God could experience the world how it actually is. I am guessing you mean something quite different, but I don't know what.

since we know exactly how it all works, and could extract the information from the computer without the computer telling us.

Why is that an "experience" at all? Its just the computer functioning.

Replace the computer with a self-building and changing neural network and the program with learned behavior of associating the word red with that particular color when detected then it would be subjective again. Thus, would have a mind by your definition.

So you think that neural networks are concious?

We know there is more than mindless data-processing? We can detect the color red, but I'd say that detection seems like mindless data-processing.

How do you know what mindless data-processing "seems like" to the data processor? Why should it "seem like" anything at all?

We can recall what word we've associated with that color, again seems like mindless data-processing. Sound, same as seeing. I don't see where we have anything more than mindless data-processing. I think you just believe there is more than data-processing.

Yes, I believe my own subjective experiences are very different to anything it must "seem like" to be a neural network. I see no reason to believe neural networks experience anything at all.

Geoff
 

ISF - Join now!

Every member here is approved by hand. No bots, no spam, just people who care about evidence and honest debate.

Membership is free!

Create your free account

Back
Top Bottom