A question for scientists: Primary and Secondary qualities

  • Thread starter Thread starter Interesting Ian
  • Start date Start date
Re: Re: Re: Re: Chalmers disproof of materialism

Mercutio said:
But we do deduce our own consciousness from our behavior!

Oh don't be so preposterous! Suppose I was complete paralysed so that I was unable to move my body at all. I wouldn't thereby conclude I wasn't conscious! Or suppose that whenever I wanted to move my body in a given way, either nothing happened, or some movement occurred which was not consistent with my intent?

I have clearly stated in this thread that private behaviors such as thinking, feeling, seeing...as "things that we do" are clearly "behaviors".

Then you are playing Stimpy's semantic game ie redefining words so that you do not mean by them their proper definition.

You say we know we are conscious because of our experience--

Ummmm . . .it is an uninterpreted direct acquaintance. If you do not understand what I mean then you must be a p-zombie.
 
Ian,

I don't think that's been proved. We need to allow the materialists to argue that p-zombies are logically impossible. Our tentative conclusion should be that p-zombies are logically possible in the absence of any reason to suppose they aren't.

Are you sure you want to take this position Ian? After all, if p-zombies are logically possible, then libertarian free-will does not exist either.

The proof of this is simple:

1) If p-zombies are logically possible, then this means that another universe physically identical to ours, but without consciousness, is logically possible.

2) If such a Universe is logically possible, then this means that consciousness cannot possibly have any effect on anything physical in this universe.

3) Libertarian free-will implies that consciousness does have an effect on the physical world.

4) If p-zombies are logically possible, then libertarian free-will is logically impossible.


Of course, this just illustrates the vacuousness of the notion that since we can conceive of something, our tentative conclusion should be that it is logically possible until such time as it is proven otherwise. Apparently you are capable of conceiving of p-zombies, and you are also capable of conceiving of libertarian free-will. They cannot both be logically possible. Which one should you assume is logically possible, and why?

Once again, the logical possibility of p-zombies contradicts both of our positions. Neither of us accepts the premises of the p-zombie argument (epiphenomenalism), so why should you expect materialists to accept the argument as a refutation of materialism? Why don't you accept it as a refutation of free-will?

Your reasoning on this issue is clearly not sound. You obviously rejected the epiphenomenalism idea when you asserted that you had proven the existence of libertarian free-will, and yet you expect us to accept the epiphenomenalism idea as a refutation of materialism! Either epiphenomenalism is true, in which case we are both wrong, or it is false, in which case any argument which uses it as a premise (as the p-zombie argument does), is irrelevant to the discussion.


Dr. Stupid
 
Ian,

the assumption of an objective reality is not the only axiom of modern materialism. It is one of several. The other axioms, stated informally, assume that this reality is logical, consistent, and that we can infer facts about it from our observations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Where did you get this definition of materialism from?? I know of no definition of materialism that stipulates that reality is logical, consistent, and that we can infer facts about it from our observations. This is not implicit within materialism at all, anymore than it is implicit within idealism or dualism. You're talking about science here, not materialism.

We have been over this before. I am talking about modern scientific materialism, not the archaic metaphysical materialism that you always go on about, but which nobody actually believes anymore. I am well aware that you pathologically refuse to accept that materialism could mean anything other than what you define it to mean, but since my above statement was being made to somebody else, I really don't care whether you choose to deliberately misinterpret what I said or not. As far as you are concerned, I am not a materialist, and when I say "materialism" I mean what you call "naturalism", remember?

In any event, csense's question had to do with the axiom of objectivity being insufficient for the scientific method to be applied. I have pointed out that this is not the only axiom used by modern materialists. Whether or not you consider these additional axioms to be necessary parts of materialism, is completely irrelevant.


Dr. Stupid
 
Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Chalmers disproof of materialism

Interesting Ian said:


Oh don't be so preposterous! Suppose I was complete paralysed so that I was unable to move my body at all. I wouldn't thereby conclude I wasn't conscious! Or suppose that whenever I wanted to move my body in a given way, either nothing happened, or some movement occurred which was not consistent with my intent?

Your definition of behavior is that of the methodological behaviorist--it must be externally visible. This was the view in, say, 1950, but not today. More below.

Then you are playing Stimpy's semantic game ie redefining words so that you do not mean by them their proper definition.
I am sorry to have confused you, but I have been quite consistent with my definition of behavior. I am an experimental psychologist; my training is in behaviourism. My definition of behavior is not mine alone, but the accepted definition for the field; I am not playing semantic games. Thus, if your paralysis example from above leaves the person able to think, then that person is behaving. If he sees, that is yet another behavior. The fact that his arms and legs are still only prohibits those behaviors that require them. To cease this person's behavior completely, you need also shut down their seeing, hearing, remembering, and thinking (and anything else that they "do"). When we have done so, is there "consciousness" remaining? I would guess not. If you think that consciousness remains in that instance, that is the consciousness that the p-zombie does not have, and you must forgive me if I cannot see it in me either.

Ummmm . . .it is an uninterpreted direct acquaintance. If you do not understand what I mean then you must be a p-zombie.
When I see red, I would say that my "immediately experienced reality" (to borrow your phrase) is "red", not "the consciousness of seeing red". Why you insist on adding a layer and denying that you do so is puzzling.
 
“… The failure of logical supervenience directly implies that materialism is false: there are features of the world over and above the physical features. The basic argument for this goes as follows:

1) In our world there are conscious experiences.
2) There is a logically possible world physically identical to ours, in which the positive facts about consciousness in our world do not hold.
3) Therefore, facts about consciousness are further facts about our world, over and above the physical facts.
4) So materialism is false.”
-------------------------------------------

1. Okay, there are consious experiences, even if we don't have a working way of verification, other than self report.

2. Yeah, so there could also be a world in which monkeys fly out of George Bush's rectum with hundred dollar bills. SO WHAT!

3. This is not demostrated at all, SHOW YOUR WORK CHALMERS! What is this some form of neo platonism? Beauty is transcendant therefore it exists outside that material world?
FACTS ABOUT CONSIUOSNESS ARE FACTS ABOUT THE MATERIAL WORLD! This a a leap of faith not a logical proof.

4. Therefore nothing, you have proven that three follows from anything so... no four.

Do you think Chalmers is a P-zombie?
 
First of all could I request you allow me some time to respond to your posts? You wrote a huge post 2 days ago which I have yet to fully address. If you only allow about 30 mins from me posting, to you responding a ◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊ (typically about 500-1000 words), then I am simply unable to find enough time to respond to everything you say. So please desist. At the very minimum allow me time to catch up.

Stimpson J. Cat said:
II
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Yes, the only escape for the materialist is to logically demonstrate that p-zombies are logically impossible!

By logically impossible I mean that there is an inherent incoherency in the notion of a p-zombie, for eg like an object which at the same time is simultaneously both a cube and a sphere. That is to say that it must be shown that p-zombies could not obtain in any logically possible Universe.

But it is difficult to see how the materialist could do this. After all, unlike an object which is simultaneously both a cube and a sphere, I can certainly conceive of p-zombies. That which is conceivable tends to suggest that it is logically possible. Certainly the onus is on the materialist to logically demonstrate that they are not.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Stimp
Well, if the mind-brain hypothesis is true, then p-zombies are logically impossible. This is because if the mind-brain hypothesis is true, then consciousness can (at least in principle) be logically derived from the physical facts. The existence of a p-zombie would therefore be a logical contradiction.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I have no idea what this "mind-brain" hypothesis is,
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Oh please! I am talking about the hypothesis that consciousness is a set of physical brain processes!

Ah! The identity theory. So you are giving here a definitive statement that you subscribe to the identity theory (central state materialism)? If I were to subscribe to materialism I would prefer functionalism myself.


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
but if it implies p-zombies are logically impossible, then clearly you need to give some reason to suppose why this ""mind-brain" hypothesis" should be supposed to be correct.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



A couple reasons:

1) It is the most parsimonious falsifiable hypothesis we have for consciousness.

It doesn't constitute a falsifiable hypothesis. That's like saying an elephant is one and the very same thing as a biscuit is the most parsimonious falsifiable hypothesis we have for the existence of biscuits. It simple is literally nonsensical. Once we have pointed out all the characteristics of biscuits and elephants, then it is nonsensical for you to declare they are nevertheless one and the very same thing. Analogically, once we have pointed out all the characteristics of brains and consciousnesses, then it is nonsensical for you to declare they are nevertheless one and the very same thing.

2) Lots and lots of supporting scientific evidence.

There is none whatsoever. Or if you think otherwise then please supply a list. Besides if materialism is logically incoherent then it is logically incoherent. It doesn't matter about scientific evidence even if one supposes there could be scientific evidence for the logically incoherent.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I repeat what I said before. You must demonstrate that p-zombies are logically impossible.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Nonsense. You are claiming that materialism is impossible because p-zombies are logically possible.

They seem to be as they are conceivable. If they are not then please explain why.

Just because you can conceive of a scenario under which materialism would be false, does not mean that I have to formally refute that scenario as being impossible. You could spend the rest of your life making up such scenarios. Do I have to refute every single scenario you can dream up that would make materialism false?

Materialism is incompatible with p-zombies. Unless you can somehow indicate that they are impossible how can you rationally subscribe to materialism? If someone mentions a problem in a particular metaphysic that someone espouses, a problem which seems to be very difficult to explain away, and whose existence ensures the falsity of that metaphysic, then yes, the defender of that metaphysic must defend it against that charge. Why on earth should materialists be exempt any more than idealists or dualists are?? :rolleyes:

If you want to use the logical possibility of p-zombies to show that materialism is false, then you need to demonstrate that they are logically possible.

No I am not required to do that. It is you who must show they are impossible. The onus is on you because they are conceivable and therefore suggestful of their logical possibility.

After all, you are the one who has asserted he has a formal proof here, not me. I have never claimed to be able to prove that materialism is true.

I do not claim to have a formal proof. I say that just considering this problem for materialism in isolation, that it is rational to reject materialism unless you can come up with any arguments to nullify this problem.


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Are you going to do this or not? If not then it simply is not rational to adhere to the materialist metaphysic.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



I do not adhere to any metaphysic.

You have claimed that you are a materialist. Moreover your definition clearly is not merely naturalism, but also materialism. Therefore you do subscribe to a metaphysic.

As for me proving that p-zombies are logically impossible, no, I am not going to do that.

Then you should abandon your materialism.

Doing so would, by definition, require that I know every physical fact about the world. I don't.

No no no!!! You don't understand! I'm talking about the logical possibility. You can imagine any conceivable physical facts you like. They don't have to reflect what the world actually is.

You are essentially claiming that if I cannot refute an unfalsifiable hypothesis which contradicts materialism, then I must assume that hypothesis is true. That is just plain stupid.

No it is you that is being stupid. Reread my arguments and this time try to understand.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If you cannot do this, then you cannot rationally subscribe to materialism.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



Baloney. If this reasoning were valid, then nobody could ever rationally subscribe to any position. For any position you could possibly want to hold, anybody could come up with any number of unfalsifiable positions which contradict it. You cannot reasonably demand that they must be refuted in order for the original position to be a rational one.

Are you being deliberately stupid or what?? I'm sick of repeating myself. P-zombies are conceivable, therefore we should provisionally suppose they are logically possible, therefore we should provisionally suppose materialism is false.

It's as simple as that.



--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I don't see why this should be seen as a problem, though. After all, we cannot logically derive the chemical properties of complex molecules from Quantum Mechanics either. We just assume that chemistry is reducible to QM because that is the most parsimonious explanation we have for our observations.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I think these properties would be naturally necessitated rather than logically necessitated.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



You are wrong, as usual. Science holds that Chemistry and Biology are logically reducible to Quantum Mechanics.

Chemistry and Biology are clearly not logically necessitated by QM. For example we could imagine a logically possible Universe operating on the same principles as scientists in the late 19th century envisaged reality to be. In which case we would have chemistry and biology but no QM!

Every "rule" in chemistry and biology is assumed to be logically deducible from QM, even though we cannot analytically perform that deduction.

Why is reality logically necessitated to change according to the mathematical patterns entailed by QM?

Besides all this is just a false analogy anyway. Consiousness is dissimilar to biology and QM because phenomenological conscious experiences are only experienced by the subject. Phenomenological consciousness is irreducibly private and therefore cannot in principle be reduced to any physical facts about the world.
 
Interesting Ian said:
First of all could I request you allow me some time to respond to your posts? You wrote a huge post 2 days ago which I have yet to fully address. If you only allow about 30 mins from me posting, to you responding a ◊◊◊◊◊◊◊◊ (typically about 500-1000 words), then I am simply unable to find enough time to respond to everything you say. So please desist. At the very minimum allow me time to catch up.
Hey, take all the time you need; I'm already impressed at how much you are able to respond to. Can't expect you to be even more superhuman....:D
 
Chalmers argument.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1) In our world there are conscious experiences.
2) There is a logically possible world physically identical to ours, in which the positive facts about consciousness in our world do not hold.
3) Therefore, facts about consciousness are further facts about our world, over and above the physical facts.
4) So materialism is false.”

http://www.geocities.com/qualophile...te/zombies.html
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

II
This argument at least appears to be sound on the surface. Could anyone suggest what could possibly be wrong with it?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Stimpy

How about the fact that premise two flat-out claims that consciousness has absolutely no effect, whatsoever, on anything physical?

{SIGHS HEAVILY}

This is not within any of the premises

Depending on how you define consciousness, either premise 1 or premise 2 is false.

If you deny premise one there is nothing more to be discussed. If you deny premise 2 then please supply some reasons for rejecting it.

If "conscious experience" is defined to be something which has no effect on anything physical, then there is no way he can claim that conscious experiences exist.

That wouldn't be a definition of conscious experience. As I said before, conscious experience cannot be defined. There is nothing inherently inconsistent about consciousness having no effect on anything physical (eg imagine our state after death). It is however possibly inconsistent with our actual behaviour.

In any event, what he is calling "conscious experience" is clearly not what either you or I mean by that term,

How so?

since one of the few things we do agree on is that consciousness has effects on the physical world.

I disagree with him in that I believe consciousness has causal power. Perhaps not the qualia per se though.

If he defines "conscious experience" to be our actual mental experiences, then the fact that they do have an effect on the physical world implies that premise two must be false.

OK, you're going to have to explain this one to me.

No such alternative world is possible, because regardless of whether the physical world is closed or not, a world without consciousness would be physically different from ours.

Would this then imply that it would be impossible for an android to have indistinguishable behaviour from a real human being, and yet not be conscious? I suppose if you say the world is physically closed then this would follow (from my argument earlier in the thread). I concede it might be possible for such an android to exist providing the world is not physically closed. One would know it is not conscious through anomalous cognition (possibly in speaking to it we might feel that there is nothing inside there. That there is a strange sort of emptiness).


But the point here is that you can only claim that a p-zombie is impossible because you believe that certain physical facts about the world give rise to your phenomenal consciousness. This kinda begs the question though doesn't it?
This is silly Ian. You are not an epiphenomenalist, so how can you possibly expect to convince a materialist that materialism is false by trying to claim that epiphenomenalism is true?

Huh? I have already explained that I am leaning towards the view that epiphenomenalism is incoherent since since it both stipulates the physical world is closed and there doesn't seem to be any meaningful distinction between human beings and p-zombies. This obviously doesn't rule out the logical possibility that everyone who has ever existed is a p-zombie.
 
Ian,

They are certainly conceivable because I can conceive them.
...
Loki, that wasn't an argument. He is just stating what is the case. There isn't an actual argument against the logical possibility of p-zombies contained in there.
Please slow down and re-read what was posted - in particular, read the Dennet link *in full*. Dennet is pointing out the logical inconsistency in Moody's article - Moody was claiming that P-Zombies are (a) fully behaviourially identical to "real people" and (b) not able to understand or engage in *some* of the issues we would discuss and debate. Quite simply, Moody's position contains an inherent contradiction. Further, that P-Zombies appear concievable only if you 'adjust' the conceivability to suit the conclusion you are seeking, which is what Moody has done. And which you appear to be doing.

So what details about p-zombies am I unaware of?
Sheesh...well, the details of the "undefinable thing" you call consciousness. The point being made is simple, Ian - *if* there are certain details regarding consciousness that you are currently unaware of, then that can lead you to a conclusion (ie, "P-Zombies are conceivable"). This seemed especially relevant to your current position, since you repeat quite frequently that "conciousness" is undefinable. Given that you can't define it, I find it hard to trust your assertion that P-Zombies are conceivable.

Are you sure you can conceive of them, given your current opinion of conciousness? You can imagine a P-Zombie clone telling you "I love you, Ian"? "Don't be stupid", you reply, "You're just a Zombie artifact. You have no idea what love is - you've never experienced it". "You're so, so wrong, Ian, I experience it everyday when I look at you" says P-Ian, "and I'll prove it to you...I can't go on without you...goodbye my love". At that moment P-Ian pulls out a gun and shoots himself in the head.

You can imagine P-Ian doing all that - being so sure that he *has* experienced love, being so emotionally disturbed - yet not being conscious?

Yes, I agree the burden of proof should be on the materialist.
...
Well, I don't know about that, but my possible disagreement is an irrelevancy.
...
I assume he means logically possible? If he means naturally possible, this is certainly not true. Nor would I necessarily subscribe to the notion that conceivability necessarily implies logical possibility. But of course one would tend to suppose that a particular case of conceivability implies logical possibility unless one could advance arguments to cast doubt on this eg the logical possibility of p-zombies.
...
Hmmm . . .well I don't agree with his premises. For a kick off I'm not aware of anyone stating they are naturally possible.
...
Er . . .our??? It's certainly wasn't my premise!
...
MT is materialism? If p-zombies are logically possible then materialism is false.
...
I don't think that's been proved. We need to allow the materialists to argue that p-zombies are logically impossible. Our tentative conclusion should be that p-zombies are logically possible in the absence of any reason to suppose they aren't.
...
Er . . .so MT is a type of materialism?
...
Sorry I have no idea what S5 is, and it sure as hell wasn't noted above!
...
Loki if you're going to quote people could you please read through what you're quoting so at least it makes sense! Christ's sake!
Ian, the only point I'd make here is that I assumed you'd be interested enough to actually read *the full article* I linked to. I quoted part of the article that makes the main points - but yes, if you don't read the full article then some of the references in the quote will not make sense! If you *do* read the full article I think you'll find that your comments above are addressed, or irrelevant. Follow the logic through, and find a flaw in the conclusion if you can. Otherwise, the end result is simply that *you* must produce a clear contradiction in materialism, or conceed that "P-Zombie concievability" is a weak argument at best.

Really, I don't know if there's any point in continuing since you obviously couldn't be bothered to address the details of the counterpoints *you* asked for. If you're so sure you're right that you can't be troubled to read opposing opinions, then don't go asking for them.
 
Ian,

Just caught this little bit...

I disagree with him in that I believe consciousness has causal power. Perhaps not the qualia per se though.
Then you *can't* conceive of P-Zombies! The entire argument rests on the premise that P-Zombies are behaviourally identical (and that means completely 100% identical) - meaning that *anything* you can behaviourally do, they can. If you believe that there is even just one "thing" you do/think taht is caused by "consciousness", then a P-Zombie (who doesn't have consciousness) would not be able to do that one "thing". So P-Ian and Ian are not behaviourally identical. You just refuted P-Zombies. Are you sure you're thinking this through?
 
Stimpson J. Cat said:

It is not a conflict at all. What this means is that the assumption of an objective reality is not the only axiom of modern materialism. It is one of several. The other axioms, stated informally, assume that this reality is logical, consistent, and that we can infer facts about it from our observations.


Yes, I would agree it's not the only axiom, or assumption if you prefer, but it is an assumption you must make first, and you must make it a priori since you can not extract it a posteriori. It is not testable and it is not falsifiable (and I trust we are in agreement that in this level of discussion when we refer to an observer we are not limiting it to the visual)

Since you're making this assumption a priori, then physical reality independent an observer becomes both necessary and universal, which I think you would agree with.

The next set of assumptions, that physical reality is logical and consistent, can only be contingently true if you extract them a posteriori, so you can't say that they are necessarily so, and if you do assume a priori that they are necessarily so, then you are in conflict with your first assumption.


In other words, the axioms of modern materialism are exactly the set of assumptions that must be made in order to apply the scientific method.


I don't think the two are exactly alike. One doesn't need to make the assumption that physical reality exists independent an observer for the scientific method to be applied, and further, how is science to determine this assumption absent an observer.
 
Loki said:
Just caught this little bit...



quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I disagree with him in that I believe consciousness has causal power. Perhaps not the qualia per se though.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------


Then you *can't* conceive of P-Zombies!

Well that's interesting. You know what I can and cannot conceive, do you, better than myself? :rolleyes:

Perhaps you're saying that I must conclude that p-zombies are logically impossible? In that case I would ask how so? What does my logical proof consist of?

Or perhaps you mean that it must be my opinion that p-zombies are logically impossible? So are you then saying that materialists are relying upon my opinion in this matter, even though this opinion was shaped by particular beliefs that they find utterly repugnant?? Come now.

The entire argument rests on the premise that P-Zombies are behaviourally identical (and that means completely 100% identical) - meaning that *anything* you can behaviourally do, they can. If you believe that there is even just one "thing" you do/think taht is caused by "consciousness", then a P-Zombie (who doesn't have consciousness) would not be able to do that one "thing". So P-Ian and Ian are not behaviourally identical. You just refuted P-Zombies. Are you sure you're thinking this through?]

I have refuted p-zombies?? You mean I have refuted their logical possibility?? Gosh I must be clever! :D ;)

Let's get to the nitty gritty of the problem shall we. Materialists believe the physical world is closed. Thus all of our behaviour is simply a reflection of physical laws playing out. Now it seems that physical laws only refer to that which can be publically or objectively verified i.e that which is discernable from the third person perspective. So the totality of our behaviour can be understood with reference to our environment and the physical processes in our brains. But if this is so then it is entirely unclear what purpose our phenomenological consciousness plays since it appears to be causally inefficaceous. The materialists solution is to simply state that phenomenological consciousness is identical to, or is logically entailed by such physical processes in the brain.

Now my whole point is what justifies the materialists assertion that phenomenological consciousness is entailed by physical processes? Does he indeed have any justification whatsoever over and above his conviction that all that exists is the physical? That he "knows" that the physical exhausts reality, but he also knows he is (phenomenologically) conscious, therefore it necessarily must be the case that physical processes somehow necessitate consciousness? Seems so to me, but convince me otherwise.

You see this is the essence of the p-zombie argument. If the world is physically closed and our behaviour can be scientifically understand entirely with reference to third person facts in the form of physical processes in the brain, then why is it logically impossible that such physical processes by themselves could not obtain without the accompanying conscious awareness? Indeed wouldn't the materialist actually expect all people to actually just be p-zombies. Is it not the case that the only reason why this expectation is rejected is because the materialist knows he is conscious, therefore for some reason physical processes must necessitate consciousness? Doesn't this in turn suggest that the materialist is in a very poor position to reject the existence of p-zombies? but as I say, if you disagree with this, then demonstrate they are logically impossible!
 
Interesting Ian said:

Would this then imply that it would be impossible for an android to have indistinguishable behaviour from a real human being, and yet not be conscious? I suppose if you say the world is physically closed then this would follow (from my argument earlier in the thread). I concede it might be possible for such an android to exist providing the world is not physically closed. One would know it is not conscious through anomalous cognition (possibly in speaking to it we might feel that there is nothing inside there. That there is a strange sort of emptiness).


Hmmm... There are people who I have spoken with -- and felt at the time that there was nothing inside them, that they behaved as an android would -- they seemed to not behave like a "real" person, but only act in rule-like behavior. Have you ever had such an experience?


But the point here is that you can only claim that a p-zombie is impossible because you believe that certain physical facts about the world give rise to your phenomenal consciousness. This kinda begs the question though doesn't it?


I see a problem in the behavioral definition of the P-Zombie (even and especially including thinking/feeling/etc. as part of the definition of behavior). Not surprisingly, it concerns some linguistic faults.

Every person differs from every other. One person's internal feelings do not EQUAL another's. So, I fail to see how we could even measure if a P-Zombie's behavior IS THE SAME as a real person's; since any comparison between human and human, or P-Zombie and human MUST entail differences (and it is not clear if P-Zombie to P-Zombie comparison must entail differences or not); and the essential differences that differentiate a P-Zombie from a human may be lost in the noise of NECESSARY differences.

Even the differences between one human and themselves from one moment to the next, may suggest that a "person" can be a part-time P-Zombie.

From this perspective, everyone other than myself may be a P-Zombie; and even myself at times -- and we may have no way to know this.

I know, I know ... "reduces to solipsism" ...


Huh? I have already explained that I am leaning towards the view that epiphenomenalism is incoherent since since it both stipulates the physical world is closed and there doesn't seem to be any meaningful distinction between human beings and p-zombies. This obviously doesn't rule out the logical possibility that everyone who has ever existed is a p-zombie.

But the definition of P-Zombie has to do with an evaluation of lack of requisite difference from human behavior; and difference from "human consciousness". So there must be at least one "true" human; otherwise the idea of "human consciousness" does not obtain.
 
Reply to Mercutio

Mercutio said:

I am, of course
I just meant that some questions can be the fruit of a debating technique, don't take it personally ;)

So "consciousness" is a category of behaviors.
Not at all. It's a category of experiences. Experiences are more than just behavior of the body or functional processes in the brain. The word behavior in either of these contexts does not capture the experiential nature of consciousness. Which is also a matter of subjectively undergoing, not just of doing. "Private behavior" would apply both to non-conscious and subjective inner processes. So just saying that consciousness is private behavior is simply insufficient.

I don't think we can use the term "subjective" here yet, as it has baggage (as seen in this thread).
Well, I precisely think we can’t do without it in one particular sense, as I’ve said before, namely that of "being experienced by an experient".

You give these behaviors as examples, too--are there any members of this category which you consider qualitatively different from these?
Actually, they are all qualitatively different, even every single experience is qualitatively different from any other single experience.

oh, could we use "non-conscious" instead of "unconscious"? The latter has a lot of psychodynamic baggage that is not worth sorting through
You’re right, the term unconscious isn’t neutral anymore. No objection.

It is not a causal entity, and adds nothing but a layer of nomenclature to the discussion
Even in your conception, it should have some causal impact, as ‘behavior’. So you've lost me here.

If I engage in these behaviors (and I assure you sincerely that I do) as a M-zombie (or a p-zombie, for that matter), there is nothing more to consciousness than that. (?)
Of course I don’t agree with this.
 
Aother reply to Dancing David

David asked:

thats a mighty big assertion that the brain can not contain qualia, where else do they come from?
What about an irreducible mind which contains both consciousness and a non-physical memory?

But thats the whole point, there may be qualia as a free floating semantic concept, but actual qualia are depndant on the physiology of the brain
Again, that’s not an assertion about the reality of qualia but just about its possible source(s).

My feeling then it that you are saying:
1. There might be consiousness outside the brain, because it is a possibilty.
2. The brain could not contain qualia and therefore they exist somewhere else.
3. The brain is associated with consiousness but that consiousness is not limited to the brain.

But this being the science forum, I would ask, how can any of these assertions be tested for? I am willing to believe that they may in fact be true. But what experiments could be done to demostrate
About experiments I’m not so sure, but there is quite some naturalistic evidence in parapsychology or psychical research which strongly suggests that the mind can indeed function extra-cerebrally. Also, there is serious evidence for memories of previous lives in young children and for memories of experiences during a stage very close to flat EEG .

On the qualia issue: that seems to be based on the definition, is there room for scientific exploration of the way that the brain does represent qualia, or is that meaningless.
In my view it could only be meaningful if qualia could after all be represented quantitatively (or ‘formally’) in neural patterns. Otherwise, it doesn’t make any sense.

Titus
 
Chalmers and epiphenomenalism

Ian said:

Chalmers doesn't claim that consciousness is causally efficaceous. I believe he is an epiphenomenalist.
He's got a very curious position very much like epiphenomenalism, though he might deny that himself. He acknowledges the argument formulated by Dennett and others (including myself) that in order to justify our claim that we know of the existence of an irreducible consciousness, we must admit that there is a way to know our own subjective experiences. However, he thinks this does not equal a causal impact, but is based on introspective 'acquaintance' . Together with my friend Hein van Dongen I've published an article against epiphenomenalism, which includes some criticism of Chalmers' position. Our well-founded case is that qualia are causally efficacious. If anyone wants to know why, please read the article first.

Best wishes,

Titus
 
Ian,

I repeat what I said before. You must demonstrate that p-zombies are logically impossible.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Nonsense. You are claiming that materialism is impossible because p-zombies are logically possible.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

They seem to be as they are conceivable. If they are not then please explain why.

I did not say that they were not conceivable. I said that the fact that they are conceivable in no way implies that they are logically possible, or that I should have to prove that they are not, in order to hold a position which is contradictory to them.

Just because you can conceive of a scenario under which materialism would be false, does not mean that I have to formally refute that scenario as being impossible. You could spend the rest of your life making up such scenarios. Do I have to refute every single scenario you can dream up that would make materialism false?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Materialism is incompatible with p-zombies. Unless you can somehow indicate that they are impossible how can you rationally subscribe to materialism?

I have already explained why I think they are impossible. If consciousness has any effect on the physical world at all, then they are logically impossible.

If someone mentions a problem in a particular metaphysic that someone espouses, a problem which seems to be very difficult to explain away, and whose existence ensures the falsity of that metaphysic, then yes, the defender of that metaphysic must defend it against that charge. Why on earth should materialists be exempt any more than idealists or dualists are??

I disagree. If there only seems to be a problem, but I can't prove that it really is a problem, then he has no obligation to refute my potential problem.

Doing so would, by definition, require that I know every physical fact about the world. I don't.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

No no no!!! You don't understand! I'm talking about the logical possibility. You can imagine any conceivable physical facts you like. They don't have to reflect what the world actually is.

That is where you are wrong. The p-zombie argument you posted:

1) In our world there are conscious experiences.
2) There is a logically possible world physically identical to ours, in which the positive facts about consciousness in our world do not hold.
3) Therefore, facts about consciousness are further facts about our world, over and above the physical facts.
4) So materialism is false.”

Notice the boldface. This hypothetical world must be physically identical to ours. If I am going to prove that p-zombies are logically impossible, that means that I need to prove that a world physically identical to ours would necessarily have to have consciousness in it. I cannot possibly prove that without knowing all of the physical facts about this world. What I can do is say that since what I think of as consciousness clearly has an effect on this physical world, whatever aspect of consciousness these hypothetical p-zombies are missing cannot possibly be anything I have any reason to believe exists. It certainly isn't what I think of as consciousness, anyway.

If you think about it, the same must be true for you. libertarian free-will is no more compatible with epiphenomenalism than materialism is.

Are you being deliberately stupid or what?? I'm sick of repeating myself. P-zombies are conceivable, therefore we should provisionally suppose they are logically possible, therefore we should provisionally suppose materialism is false.

Should we also provisionally suppose that libertarian free-will is false? After all, I can certainly conceive of scenarios in which it is.

I do not see why you think that conceivability should imply that we assume something is true. :confused:

You are wrong, as usual. Science holds that Chemistry and Biology are logically reducible to Quantum Mechanics.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Chemistry and Biology are clearly not logically necessitated by QM. For example we could imagine a logically possible Universe operating on the same principles as scientists in the late 19th century envisaged reality to be. In which case we would have chemistry and biology but no QM!

Well I guess that answers my question. You seriously think that we should assume that Chemistry and Biology are not reducible to QM, until such time as we can formally prove that they are, simply because we can conceive of the possibility that they are not? :eek: Does the concept of parsimony mean nothing to you?

Every "rule" in chemistry and biology is assumed to be logically deducible from QM, even though we cannot analytically perform that deduction.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Why is reality logically necessitated to change according to the mathematical patterns entailed by QM?

How the Hell should I know? Do I have "God" tattooed on my forehead? But clearly science requires us to assume that it is. Otherwise we could make no predictions based on it.

Besides all this is just a false analogy anyway. Consiousness is dissimilar to biology and QM because phenomenological conscious experiences are only experienced by the subject.

Irrelevant. The point is that if we accept your notion that anything which is conceivable should be assumed to be logically possible until proven otherwise, then all of science goes right out the window, because you can always construct an unfalsifiable conceivable scenario to contradict any scientific theory.

How about the fact that premise two flat-out claims that consciousness has absolutely no effect, whatsoever, on anything physical?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

{SIGHS HEAVILY}

This is not within any of the premises

Sure it is. In fact, that is exactly what premise 2 means.

since one of the few things we do agree on is that consciousness has effects on the physical world.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I disagree with him in that I believe consciousness has causal power. Perhaps not the qualia per se though.

That's the whole point. If consciousness has causal power, then p-zombies are not logically possible. Don't take my word for it. Ask an epiphenomenalist. For that matter, ask Chalmers himself. Epiphenomenalism holds that consciousness has no causal power over the physical at all.

If he defines "conscious experience" to be our actual mental experiences, then the fact that they do have an effect on the physical world implies that premise two must be false.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

OK, you're going to have to explain this one to me.

Premise two states that:

"There is a logically possible world physically identical to ours, in which the positive facts about consciousness in our world do not hold."

If consciousness has any effect at all on the physical world, then a world without consciousness would be missing those effects. The physical facts about our world include those effects that consciousness has had on it. Remove consciousness, and those physical facts will not be the same.

If your consciousness affects your behavior, that behavior constitutes physical facts about this world. A world physically identical to ours would have to have that same behavior, but without the cause. Some other physical cause would have to account for your behavior in the p-zombie world. But then that other physical cause would constitute different physical facts about that world!

No such alternative world is possible, because regardless of whether the physical world is closed or not, a world without consciousness would be physically different from ours.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Would this then imply that it would be impossible for an android to have indistinguishable behaviour from a real human being, and yet not be conscious?

No. Because in spite of the fact that the android's behavior is indistinguishable from human behavior, the android is most definitely physically different than a human being.

You could try to allow p-zombies by claiming that some physical process in the p-zombie's brain serves the causal purpose that consciousness does in a normal human, but then you are claiming that the p-zombie is not physically identical to a human.

In other words, the outward physical behavior of a p-zombie could be the same, but only if their physical structure was different. Likewise their physical structure could be the same, but only if their outward physical behavior was different. In no case could the total physical facts about the world be the same.

I suppose if you say the world is physically closed then this would follow (from my argument earlier in the thread). I concede it might be possible for such an android to exist providing the world is not physically closed. One would know it is not conscious through anomalous cognition (possibly in speaking to it we might feel that there is nothing inside there. That there is a strange sort of emptiness).

You don't need anomalous cognition. Just look at the physical structure of its brain. If its behavior is the same as that of a normal person, but it doesn't have consciousness, then it must have some physical process in its brain that a normal person does not have that takes the place of consciousness.

If consciousness is not a brain process, but affects the brain, then in principle it should be possible to observe those effects. In the real person there would be no apparent source of those effects (assuming your beliefs are true). The android would have to have the same effects in order for its behavior to be the same as a human's, but in the case of the android, the source of those effects would have to be some physical structure or process. That is a physical difference.

But the point here is that you can only claim that a p-zombie is impossible because you believe that certain physical facts about the world give rise to your phenomenal consciousness. This kinda begs the question though doesn't it?

No, that is just the point. I claim that a p-zombie is impossible because I know that consciousness has physical effects on the world.

This is silly Ian. You are not an epiphenomenalist, so how can you possibly expect to convince a materialist that materialism is false by trying to claim that epiphenomenalism is true?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Huh? I have already explained that I am leaning towards the view that epiphenomenalism is incoherent since since it both stipulates the physical world is closed and there doesn't seem to be any meaningful distinction between human beings and p-zombies. This obviously doesn't rule out the logical possibility that everyone who has ever existed is a p-zombie.

Actually, it does. P-zombies can only exist if epiphenomenalism is true. That is the whole point of Chalmers' p-zombie argument. Chalmers is an epiphenomenalist, and his p-zombie conceivability argument is an argument for epiphenomenalism. The whole idea is that, like you, he thinks that conceivability implies logical possibility, and therefore argues that since p-zombies are logically possible, epiphenomenalism is true.

I think what you are trying to argue for is something different than what Chalmers calls a p-zombie. I think you are referring to a p-zombie whose outward behavior is identical to a normal person's, but who does not possess consciousness. Such a person could not be physically identical to a normal person.

Unfortunately (for you), the logical possibility of such a critter in no way invalidates materialism. Fortunately for you, it doesn't invalidate libertarian free-will either. In fact, it is completely irrelevant to both of our positions.


Dr. Stupid
 
Suggestologist said:
Huh? I have already explained that I am leaning towards the view that epiphenomenalism is incoherent since since it both stipulates the physical world is closed and there doesn't seem to be any meaningful distinction between human beings and p-zombies. This obviously doesn't rule out the logical possibility that everyone who has ever existed is a p-zombie.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



But the definition of P-Zombie has to do with an evaluation of lack of requisite difference from human behavior; and difference from "human consciousness". So there must be at least one "true" human; otherwise the idea of "human consciousness" does not obtain.

Well it would seem so to me. But the materialist holds that all behaviour is a result of physical processes. It is never phenomenal consciousness per se which determines our behaviour, but rather the neural correlates of phenomenal consciousness. But this means that p-zombies would indeed behave in all ways identical to real people including arguing about real people and p-zombies and having this idea[z] of real consciousness.

So this seems clearly absurd. And yet if everything we as real people do is the result of physical processes then obviously there doesn't seem to be anything contradictory in a world of p-zombies acting in the same way.

{Shrugs}

Just one of the ridiculous consequences that obtain in supposing the world is physically closed.
 
Stimpson J. Cat said:
Just because you can conceive of a scenario under which materialism would be false, does not mean that I have to formally refute that scenario as being impossible. You could spend the rest of your life making up such scenarios. Do I have to refute every single scenario you can dream up that would make materialism false?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Materialism is incompatible with p-zombies. Unless you can somehow indicate that they are impossible how can you rationally subscribe to materialism?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



I have already explained why I think they are impossible. If consciousness has any effect on the physical world at all, then they are logically impossible.

I just want to address this one point for now and hopefully get round to addressing some more of your collosal output later on or tomorrow.

Your position is that consciousness is identical to certain physical processes in the brain. Therefore when we totally explain behaviour by reference to these physical processes, you can say that since consciousness is one and the same as these physical processes, that consciousness has an effect upon the world.

Now, as I have pointed out on numerous occasions before, we have no reason to suppose consciousness is the very same thing as physical processes, and indeed every reason to suppose otherwise.

But the more pressing difficulty for you is that you seem to have 2 explanations for our behaviour. The one is consciousness, often in the form of intent (eg I really fancy having a glass of orange juice), the other in the physical processes in the brain which can be encompassed by a scientific theory just like any other physical facts. Now these explanations are clearly not synonymous. We understanding a feeling of thirst and physical processes in the brain, as ostensibly constituting 2 differing ways of looking at why I actually go and pour myself out a glass of water. In the case of physical processes, and in common with all other physical processes in the world, and bearing in mind that these other physical processes are never accompanied or equated with consciousness, it is clear that neural processes considered in and of themselves will totally explain our behaviour. So why do you require the conscious intent as well? It is superflous is it not? Why is it logically impossible that just the physical processes occur without any accompanying consciousness? In other words why on earth is a p-zombie logically impossible?
 
Chalmers' zombies

Hi Ian and Stimpy,

Chalmers' argument about the conceivability of a physically identical world with no conscious experients linked to it in any way, does indeed depend on the assumption of the non-efficacy of consciousness.
In my opinion his argument is much too great a concession to materialists. We don't need such a thought experiment to know that a world with conscious experients is very fundamentally different from a world without consciousness. And that a totally physical reality with no room for qualitative, subjective experiences is quite different from a reality which encompasses both the physical domain and irreducible subjective domains. No need for any further thought experiments I'd say. Or is there another reason for his thought experiment which I have missed :confused: ?

Chalmers' argumentation seems untenable in any interpretation.

(1) If consciousness is "nothing but" a level of abstraction at which we consider a purely physical reality, then there can be no physical reality in which we could not consider the same physical reality in exactly the same abstract way. The same physical processes, therefore the same abstract notion of consciousness.

(2) If consciousness is anything different from an abstraction to indicate certain complex levels of functioning of the brain, then we obviously possess knowledge of that "something else", and can express that knowledge physically, which means that our knowledge of consciousness causally makes our physical world different from a physical world without (knowledge of) consciousness. If not, our spoken or written statements about knowledge of consciousness would be a priori incoherent, including Chalmers' statements about such knowledge.
Therefore, his argument makes no sense either if consciousness is anything else.

What is his point? That it is possible to endorse dualism while bowing to the "non-efficacy of consciousness" dogma of physicalism? In other words that it is rational to claim knowledge of something you simultaneously proclaim to be unknowable;)? Is this flaw really at the core of his philosophy?

Titus
 

ISF - Join now!

Every member here is approved by hand. No bots, no spam, just people who care about evidence and honest debate.

Membership is free!

Create your free account

Back
Top Bottom