I'm confused... which is hardly surprising as I am decidedly unskilled at deciphering medical stuff
I'd appreciate a brief explanation of what you think (know?) the information they collected did show
Thanks
It was stated that the rise and fall of circumcision was driven by physicians. The scant information presented as to the attitude and behaviour of physicians showed that influential physicians were opposed to the practice, it was performed upon request by the parents, and that given a choice physicians would prefer not to perform the procedure. There is no information showing that these attitudes and behaviours changed during the entire period under consideration.
What was shown was that attitudes among the general public changed during the period under consideration, and that the procedure was no longer done at public expense. The rate of circumcision did change in conjunction with those changes. It was also found that circumcision was most strongly associated with parental characteristics (father circumcised, grandmother attitude).
So it was shown that any variation in circumcision occurred independently of any variation (they did not actually demonstrate any variation) in physician behaviour and attitude.
Linda