HINT 1: Do you know what is wrong with an Abjad and why I say it is flawed and incomplete??
1) it's not 'wrong', it's just different from what you're used to.
Script is meant to represent the spoken words (phonetics) on a medium for the purpose of reproduction at a later time/place....
If a script does not have the representations of all the phonemes and phonetics of the language then it is flawed and incomplete in its representation of that language.
And if the later time or place cannot be sure how the original sound was made and cannot produce it close enough or even induce the wrong word altogether due to the lack of graphemes... then the script is flawed and incomplete and can lead to wrong pronunciations of the words it is meant to help preserve
or even to confusing words with other words changing the meaning of the written content.
What do you think this sentence is saying
ths batfl atry sppls mat ps
This often occurs when the script is borrowed by one language from another since the script was invented for the purpose of the other language not the language borrowing it... like in the case of some European languages borrowing the Latin and having had to adapt the Latin alphabet in all sorts of additive ways.
Since
an abjad is missing vowels... vowel indicators
had to be INVENTED by humans to DISAMBIGUIATE words that could have ambiguous meaning depending on which vowel sounds they have which is not indicated if you do not have vowel graphemes.
Look up and read on the history of
the Nequdot system and why it had to be invented.... also look at how many
attempts at improving YHWH handwriting have been done in
Tiberias and
Babylon and
Palestine and
Samaria.
Your issue with abjads appears to be the lack of dedicated vowel letters, despite the fact that that's just fine for Semitic languages (and modern writers of the two main Semitic languages even have options for adding vowels to their abjads but seldom bother with them). But you've also called this one particular abjad "a flawed and incomplete abjad", which makes it seem as if there are other abjads out there which you wouldn't apply those adjectives to, and you haven't said anything about what would make the difference. Nor have you made the connection between any of this and God.
How does the meaning of this sentence change in a major
theological and legal significance (לא-תבשל גדי, בחלב אמו) if this word
(חֵלֶב) is used instead of
(חֲלֵב) ???
Notice the only difference is the nequdot which YHWH neglected to invent or think about adding to his handwriting... or even better do what the Greeks did by adding full out graphemes that represent the range of phonetics of their language.
But you've also called this one particular abjad "a flawed and incomplete abjad", which makes it seem as if there are other abjads out there which you wouldn't apply those adjectives to, and you haven't said anything about what would make the difference. Nor have you made the connection between any of this and God.
No it does not...
all abjads by definition are flawed and incomplete... see above....
HINT 2: Do you know when the Aramaic block script was invented??? And what script it evolved out of???
Yes. What point are you trying to make?
So you know that the Aramaic block script was invented in the 700s BCE and that evolved out of the Phoenician (Canaanite) script which biblical thumpers call proto-hebrew....
now do you see the point?
It wasn't, and Phoenician...
So you are saying the Aramaic block text was not invented... but you admit it evolved out of the Phoenician script.... do you not see a problem here?? Anyway see above.
what does this have to do with God?
See above.
HINT 3: Ponder over how these facts might impact the divinity of the alleged giver of this tome of Canaanite words in Aramaic script.
As has been pointed out repeatedly, no-one here is arguing that any part of the bible was written by a god. That the earliest written versions of some parts of it may have been written in a dialect commonly used in that time and place, and a script commonly used in that time and place (as you claim with no evidence) is proof of nothing, other than that they were were written in a dialect and a script commonly used in that time and place (assuming that your unevidenced claim is correct).
Again...
Hint: You either go with reality or with the narrative of the fiction... you cannot defend and do apologetics for the fiction by appealing to reality... well... not in a rational reality that is.
I suggest you
also read this post ... I hope you do...
....