Allow me to present what I believe to be a correct definition of magnetic field lines, followed by what I believe to be a (highly relevant) counterexample to the definition
Tim Thompson offered above.
Definition. A magnetic field line of a magnetic field
B is a differentiable one-parameter curve L(λ) such that dL/dλ=
B(L(λ)).
In English, that says a magnetic field line is a curve that's parallel to the magnetic field. Equivalently, the magnetic field is tangent to the magnetic field line at every point on the magnetic field line.
Example. In cylindrical coordinates, consider a magnetic field
B(r,θ,z)=(1/r,(θ+π/2),0). That's the magnetic field generated by a certain (unit-dependent) current running through an infinitely long and infinitely thin conducting rod at r=0. (Don't worry about the singularity at r=0, because it goes away for rods that aren't infinitely thin. For a real conducting rod bisected by the plane z=0, the formula shown remains a good approximation to the magnetic field in that plane provided r is small compared to the length of the rod but isn't too close to zero.)
The magnetic field lines of
B(r,θ,z)=(1/r,(θ+π/2),0) form circles whose center is r=0. If I've done the math right, the magnetic field line at radius r and height z is L(λ)=(r,λ/r
2, z).
For that particular magnetic field, the magnetic field lines do indeed have the property stated by
Tim Thompson: the magnitude of the magnetic field is constant on the magnetic field line. To construct my counterexample
B', I will subtract two translated copies of the field
B from the sum of two translated copies of
B. By linearity,
B' will be the magnetic field generated by four conducting rods, each carrying exactly the same current.
A more complicated example. Translating the origin to a point p' gives us a different magnetic field
Bp'(p)=
B(p-p') whose magnetic field lines are translations of the magnetic field lines for
B. Still using cylindrical coordinates, let
- p1=(1,0,0)
- p2=(1,π/2,0)
- p3=(1,π,0)
- p4=(1,3π/2,0)
Using
Bi to abbreviate
Bpi, define
B' = B4 - B3 + B2 - B1
Near the origin, the magnetic field lines of
B' look something like the red, blue, and red/blue lines of
except the X-lines meet at right angles instead of being vertically squashed as in that Wikipedia image.
Consider the magnetic field lines that go through the origin. It turns out that there are two different magnetic field lines that go through that point. For one of those magnetic field lines, the magnitude of the magnetic field increases in the direction of π/4, while for the other field line the magnitude of the magnetic field decreases in the direction of -π/4. For both of those magnetic field lines, the magnitude of the magnetic field is zero at the origin.
Yet neither of those magnetic field lines ends at the origin, and the divergence is zero at the origin (as it is everywhere). I suspect that some of the EU crowd's misconceptions come from using an incorrect definition of magnetic field lines and from a shallow (and incorrect) notion of divergence.