Because an individual mind and its objects of perception are separate concepts. That's what you said was the case under materialism concerning brain and mind.
You are making a false equivocation. Objects of perception are not related to individual minds in the same way that minds are related to brains. Your argument depends on the relationship being the same, but it quite clearly isn't.
Materialism: We can distinguish brain from mind. Therefore a p-zombie is logically possible. Therefore materialism is false. We can salvage it by declaring there is no such thing as mind.
Idealism: We can distinguish individual mind from objects of perception. Therefore it is logically possible to have an individual mind without objects of perception. Therefore idealism is false. We can salvage it by declaring there is no such thing as objects of perception (or, instead, individual minds).
Your description of idealism is wrong, and you are making a false equivocation. The description of materialism is correct.
Perhaps....:
Idealism: We can distinguish brain from mind. Therefore a p-zombie is logically possible. But p-zombies aren't incompatible with idealism. Therefore....this isn't helping much.
I don't think so. A p-zombie is a person with no consciousness. I'm talking about a person with a broken brain and thus abnormal or no consciousness.
eh?
"A p-zombie is a person with no consciousness."
"I'm talking about a person with ..... no consciousness.
I'm not quite following you.
I don't understand why the mere logical possibility of p-zombies causes non-eliminativist materialism to fall over, especially since you tell us that all materialisms are metaphysically equivalent. Since they are equivalent, the p-zombie argument is just a linguistic argument.
Not quite. Non-eliminativist materialism allows enough of a definition of a mind to make the concept of a p-zombie coherent, so it is vulnerable to p-zombie arguments.
All arguments are linguistic. Ever tried having an argument that wasn't in a language?
Why doesn't materialism allow reality to appear dualistic? If that is true, then the fact that reality does appear dualistic to lots of people is a logical proof that materialism is false.
Yes, when it comes down to it, it is
that simple. As soon as you admit that reality appears dualistic to us, the form of transcendental realism called "materialism" is in trouble, and it never recovers.
That's worth publishing, I think. Perhaps you mean to use a word other than appear.
No, I meant exactly what I said. And it's not worth publishing, because Kant and those who followed him got there first.
You're saying that neutral monism logically allows for p-zombies because one human can be conscious and another have identical brain structure yet not be conscious.
No. I am saying it allows them conceptually/logically, because it accepts that reality manifests in a dualistic way. Materialism accepts no such thing. The argument I gave as to why I didn't think they could exist in reality was not dependent on neutral monism, and probably not relevant.
And this is because QM/Being/Zero/Nothingness can choose not to manifest consciousness in the second human?
My own particular position would imply that this is not the case. It cannot choose not to manifest consciousness in the second human, and therefore p-zombies are not "naturally possible" to use your term. But they remain conceptually possible in their own right. It is only when I introduce other elements of my system that they become impossible.