Hercules56
Banned
- Joined
- Aug 4, 2013
- Messages
- 17,176
See: the thread title and the opening post.
I think the rulings are flawed but do some good, you?
See: the thread title and the opening post.
I am from a not-very-gunny place, so it is possible that I am missing some nuance here, but I am having trouble understanding this.
Why would "gang violence or crime" related shooting events resulting in 4+ deaths not be mass-shootings?
Is a mass-shooting not, by definition, an act of "criminal violence"?
A "stricter more discriminating definition of 4+ people killed" would include "gang violence or crime", would it not? And if not, what reasoning makes these not mass-shootings (aside from what appears to be an attempt to fudge the numbers)?
Yes it does. What we don't have is criminals who routinely carry guns. Because we make it harder for them to get one.The rest of the Western world don't have the terrible crime problems that we have. And many parts of the Western world have very strict gun laws but are still swamped with crime and murders.
The addition of guns makes social unrest more lethal.The problem isn't guns, it's social unrest. People feel so unhappy and powerless that they resort to gun violence because nothing else they do seems to matter. Politicians are trying to legislate their way out responsibility for the conditions their own antisocial and self serving policies have created.
Yes it does. What we don't have is criminals who routinely carry guns. Because we make it harder for them to get one.
The rest of the Western world don't have the terrible crime problems that we have.
Yes it does. What we don't have is criminals who routinely carry guns. Because we make it harder for them to get one.
Apples and oranges. Or perhaps, it's more like apples and bicycles.No, it doesn't. According to this data, anyway, only two European countries—France and Sweden—have higher crime rates than the U.S.
No, it doesn't. According to this data, anyway, only two European countries—France and Sweden—have higher crime rates than the U.S.
Apples and oranges. Or perhaps, it's more like apples and bicycles.
"Crime rate" does not equal "gun crime". The "crime rate" in your stats is "all reported crime", not "gun-related crime".
Again, you are wrong..
Hercule56's claim was "The rest of the Western world don't have the terrible crime problems that we have. "
Arth's reply was "Yes it does. What we* don't have is criminals who routinely carry guns. Because we make it harder for them to get one."
In context, *we means "the rest of the Western world"
I was assuming that Herc and Arth were using the common definition of "Western World" depicted by the dark blue countries here, or something thereabouts.
As in, "Yes, all modern countries have crimes, some of which are terrible such as murder, rape and arson."Well, Herc said, "The rest of the Western world don't have the terrible crime problems that we have." To which Arth responded, "Yes, it does."
Which I pointed out is such a broad description of such diverse acts that it could encompass almost anything.Which I refuted with with stats about the thing they were disagreeing about, namely, "crime."
When someone says the Western World, I consider them to be talking about all the countries that make up Australasia, Europe, and the Americas... like is says in link provided.
"The Western world, also known as the West, primarily refers to various nations and states in the regions of Australasia, Europe, and the Americas."
In case you hadn't noticed, every country I listed is in "Australasia, Europe, and the Americas" with the exception of South Africa and Nambia, which are developed countries not in the Orient.
As in, "Yes, all modern countries have crimes, some of which are terrible such as murder, rape and arson."
Which I pointed out is such a broad description of such diverse acts that it could encompass almost anything.
One reason why the UK has so few gun deaths;
https://www.motorcyclenews.com/news...s-jailed-for-shooting-attempted-bike-thieves/
"Armed vigilante brothers jailed for over 40 years after shooting at motorcycle thieves"
The actual sentences are 30 and 14 years, of which 20 and 9 are served in prison before they can apply for parole and the rest is on licence, so they can be sent back to prison on mere suspicion they have breached the licence conditions. The older brother will be 75 years old before he completes his sentence.
In case you hadn't comprehended, despite my clear explanation, try rereading my last response to you and clicking again on the link therein to see common the definition of "Western world" that I was using. Then compare that to your list of countries. If you still don't understand, repeat the exercise until you do, or just persist in your confusion.
Either way, this is my last response to you on this matter.
I am from a not-very-gunny place, so it is possible that I am missing some nuance here, but I am having trouble understanding this.
Why would "gang violence or crime" related shooting events resulting in 4+ deaths not be mass-shootings?
Is a mass-shooting not, by definition, an act of "criminal violence"?
A "stricter more discriminating definition of 4+ people killed" would include "gang violence or crime", would it not? And if not, what reasoning makes these not mass-shootings (aside from what appears to be an attempt to fudge the numbers)?
It is all about fudging the numbers. Once you accept "all lives matter" is a lie you see the picture clearly. If 2 or more guys fitting a description are on the same block, that can be called a gang, irrespective if they had ever even met before.