Give me a break. I asked you for the proof that consciousness is irreducibly subjective, and you said that I would have to accept your major premise that consciousness is not a brain process, first. Not only have you have offered no justification for that premise, but you have not even provided the proof that you claim exists if that premise is true. How can you possibly claim that you have presented a reasonable argument that my position is irrational?
This can be fatal if one of the basic ideas is ill-founded. Through the years the dogma can grow stronger (as it meets no opposition) and more 'obvious' and obstruct one's freedom of thought, without the person being aware of it.
What dogma??? I have simply asked for some kind of evidence to justify abandoning my current theory for another less-parsimonious one. You have provided none.
For me, the denial of irreducible qualia is one of the greatest absurdities imaginable.
Why? Are you sure that your belief that they must be irreducible is not dogmatic? Like I said above, assume that I have accepted the premise that there is more to qualia than brain processes. Can you provide any evidence at all that they are irreducibly non-physical?
I've never ('empathically') understood how anyone can seriously believe in it.
Why? What is so unimaginably absurd about believing that something can be understood by studying its physical effects? Isn't that normally the default position? What, other than your intuitive preconceptions, makes the situation any different for consciousness?
Nowadays I ascribe it to either the dogmatic genius-effect just mentioned or to sheer mindless epigonism (meaning that a person holds something without really understanding what it means, just because his or her 'idol' teaches it).
You really need to consider the possibility that it is you who is being dogmatic. If you can provide no evidence to justify your belief that consciousness is not a brain process, then it is you who are being dogmatic, not I.
Nor is appealing to the fact that the details about our conscious experiences cannot be inferred from observing overt behavior. I can't infer the details of what a CPU is doing by observing the overt behavior of my computer, either.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
This obviously is not my point. It's not a difference between overt and covert, which would also go for a computer, as you say. It's a difference between 'in principle exclusively accessible through introspection' and 'in principle accessible through non-introspective physical registration even if the realization of this meets with some serious practical problems'. Again, this differentiation is only important if you accept that introspection yields information about the irreducibly subjective and qualitative. If you don't then the distinction is irrelevant, but then you're obviously reasoning from another framework than mine.
I asked for a reason to believe that consciousness is irreducibly subjective. If any reason you could give me requires me to already believe they are, then you have no reason. How can I possibly accept that introspection yields information about something irreducibly subjective, without first believing that consciousness is irreducibly subjective?
Do you have any reason for me to believe this that does not require me to already believe it?
How can anything that functions according to consistent logical rules be non-quantifiable?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Another question which shows you don't really imagine what it means to be thinking from within my system.
What the question shows, is that I cannot imagine what it means to be thinking from within your system, because your system, as you have described it to me so far, is incoherent. Something cannot be both non-quantifiable, and function according to consistent logical rules. This is a tautology which is true under
any logical system.
In my system there is more to consciousness than just the physical functioning of brain processes. If there weren't, your question would make sense, as functioning would be the only thing there is to consciousness. Consciousness would then be the equivalent of certain types of cerebral 'behavior' which is as such indeed purely quantifiable. However, in my system, consciousness is not just a specific type of cerebral behavior. It is primarily something else than the behavior or functioning of something else in the physical world, namely the experience of an experient, which cannot be reduced to (i.e. reformulated, understood or described as) covert computational behavior in the brain or private functioning of the brain.
Irrelevant. I am not in any way assuming here that consciousness is just brain functioning. I am saying that if consciousness,
whatever it is, functions according to logical rules, then it is quantifiable. If it is non-quantifiable, then it does not function according to logical rules.
That's the main difference between our systems, and whether you like it or not, it's a very basic ontological difference, which can't possibly be solved through any type of compromise.
Of course not. It is the assertion that consciousness does not function according to logical rules. If this is what you believe, then just say so.
The problem lies not so much in the logical deductions, but in the premisses. Asking me for empirical evidence for my position just shows you can't even imagine I'm right, whereas in my view the evidence is lived every moment we're subjectivly experiencing anything and only a real zombie can deny this.
Like I said, your belief that consciousness is not only not just brain-processes, but also irreducibly non-physical, is not based on any evidence. It is an assumption you have made, for no reason that you seem to be able to express. You keep saying that it is obvious because of the fact that you have experiences, but I find it inconceivable that you do not realize that this is a purely intuitive argument.
Which also shows all further discussion is useless, as to tackle an opponent's position it's first necessary to understand it is as it's understood by its proponent. I've shown you that I perfectly understand your position, but not vice versa.
I do not think that you understand my position at all. If you did, you would not be claiming that it is based on dogmatism.
Wait a minute, are you saying that the interactions between consciousness and the brain can be mathematically modelled, but that consciousness itself cannot be? Isn't this just a fancy way of saying that there are characteristics of consciousness which have no effect, whatsoever, on the physical world? And since everything we do is, presumably, quantifiable, doesn't that imply that any non-quantifiable aspects of consciousness cannot have any effect on the physical world? and therefore cannot possibly affect our actions? further implying that if we know about them, then that knowledge cannot possibly affect our actions?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I'm indeed claiming that "certain effects of consciousness on the physical world only make i]ense[/i] to other minds". For example, if we write something about inner feelings, it does not affect the physical world in that it would itself become all of a sudden more qualitatively emotional. The physical world just reflects the verbal signs we use to express what we can only directly know through introspection. In that sense the physical world is blind for what consciousness is. But we as experients with non-physical minds, memory etc, ARE directly affected by consciousness and its non-physical aspects and we let this knowledge affect the physical world through our actions. That's what Popper has called the creation of World III: a part of the physical world which remains as such physical but which is created by the non-physical World II (the mind), which bears witness to it (but only for non-physical experients, not for mindless physical things) and which in turn evokes certain desired effects in consciousness (using instruments ranging from the verbal signs expressed through our vocal apparatus or writing to musical partitures, etc.). So certain effects of consciousness on the physical world aren't so much physical in the sense of meaningless physiological brain processes but rather semantical in the sense that the physical instruments used (such as speech and writing) refer to the non-physical reality of subjective experiences.
What???
Could you please just directly answer the question? Do you believe that there are characteristics of consciousness which have no physical effects at all?
Again, try to understand the inner logic of my system. If you find any fault in that, I'm open to suggestions. But you can't just project conclusions which can only be valid in yours.
I am trying to, but you keep telling me contradictory things.
If you believe that consciousness has characteristics which do not effect the physical world, then your system is inconsistent because that would imply that you have knowledge which cannot affect your actions.
If you believe that consciousness does not have such characteristics, and that it does not function according to logical rules, then you are a supernaturalist.
If you believe that consciousness has no such characteristics, but that it functions according to logical rules, then your system is inconsistent because it cannot possibly be both of the above, and be irreducibly non-physical.
If you believe that if functions according to non-quantifiable logical rules, the your system is inconsistent because that is self-contradictory.
And, of course, internal consistency issues aside, if you have no logical justification for your premise that consciousness is irreducibly non-physical, then your belief that your system is true, is irrational.
Dr. Stupid