9/11-investigator
Banned
- Joined
- Nov 9, 2008
- Messages
- 4,032
Where would we be if it were not for Nein11 confabulator to re-invent history?
There was no RC in Lithuania, Muscovy, Bulgaria, Serbia and a number of other places.
Nitpicker. You are refering to mainly Orthodox Christian backwaters where never was a reformation. Europe = Catholicism.
Misconception. Hussites and Baptism preceded Luther.
Again, nitpicking. Wikipedia:
The Protestant Reformation was the European Christian reform movement that established Protestantism as a constituent branch of contemporary Christianity. It began in 1517 when Martin Luther published The Ninety-Five Theses, and concluded in 1648 with the Treaty of Westphalia that ended years of European religious wars.[1]
Tip: edit the wikipedia Protestant Reformation page tonight to correct this 'error' and push your Hussites in. It will be removed within an hour.
Fail. The Republic of the Seven United Provinces became a republic in 1581 with the Act of Abjuration. Or a few years later when Anjou, the brother of the French king, proved a failure. The influx of Marranos started end 16th century. "Guaranteed freedom of religion" is too strong a word. There was no constitution, except for the Union of Utrecht. The first Dutch (and European) constitution that guaranteed freedom of religion dates from 1796. It is true that de facto, the Republic tolerated religions of all stripes, as long as they didn't show outward signs on their buildings. Jews were allowed to build recognizable synagogues from the 1630s.
Ddt is very eager to show how much (irrelevant facts) he knows about history (or able to google it up, we will never know). I pinpointed 1648 as a republic that was essential Protestant. That was not the case in 1581.
Why doesn't the Polish-Lithuanian commonwealth feature in your "historical overview"? At the same time as the Dutch republic, they also grantedd Jews the right to practice their religion, and many Jews migrated to Poland/Lithuania.
Because I am only interested in showing how the Sefardic Jews ended up in Anglosphere avant la lettre: via Holland, both Britain and America.
And you still haven't found a shred of evidence that the name Rossocampo actually existed?
I gave you a reasonable explanation including genealogy. You produced nothing to hold against mine.
Do you see the contradiction? First you claim that Claes Roosevelt was a Jew, and he immigrated to NYC in 1649 at the latest. Now you say the first Jews arrived in 1654. Silly deniers can never get their story straight.
It is you who comes up with 1649, silly! Do you ever read your own posts?
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6242032&postcount=2429
You really slept through teh Dutch history classes, didn't you? The year was 1688.
I was refering to the Glorious Revolution. Wikipedia: Date 1688–1689
That's for a first installment. Grade: F-.
That's an A for pedantry. Wrong on all accounts.
And now explain what your problem is with Jews. Why do you see a world-wide conspiracy? Did you have a Jewish kid in class who was smarter than you? Unless you had a lobotomy in the meantime, you then must have a grudge against a lot of groups.
Because I have eyes in my head. Why should world history solely being made by WASPs, Muslims, Germans, Soviets, Americans, British... and the Jews only sell carpets, right? Even 'regulars guys' like Mearsheimer and Walt can tell you that the Iraq war was engineered by Jews. And once you have concluded that it is not a very big step to Pearl Harbor, WW2 and Bolshevism.
Considering the vehemence of your defence... are you a Jew, ddt?
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