No, I am talking about the other side. Show me that the rich do not require disproportionately more services. That is what you asserted.
You asked for counter evidence to the rich using more services which would be the poor using more services. I gave you a list of examples to choose from. Regardless of the wording, if the poor use more of those services, the rich use less, thus proving my point.
Bri said:
The argument for progressive taxes is usually something along the lines of people who benefit more from society's resources should pay more for them.
And I'm saying that the argument for progressive taxes on the wealthy may be made for other reasons, but I don't see it being supported because they use disproportionately more of society's resources.
The property taxes on a $500,000 home are ten times that of a $50,000 home, yet in all likelihood, the family of the $50,000 home is larger, thus using more school resources, is in a higher crime area, thus uses more police services, etc. Note that this is an example of a flat % and shows that even at a flat % there is no rationale to say that the $500,000 home should be tax at a higher %, in fact the opposite is true. Lower income people tend to use disproportionately MORE government services/resources.
I didn't say the rich consume more public spending. I said that they have benefited more from it.
What's the difference between
benefited more and
consumed more? Does someone paying ten times the amount of property taxes get 10 times the amounts of benefits from society, or are they getting so much more that they should be progressively property taxed so that they are paying 20 times the amount as someone else?
I have also heard the argument you stated, that those more able to pay for public goods and the welfare system should do so.
Well at least that would make more sense as an appeal to charity and goodwill rather than the idea that the wealthy consume disproportionately more.