Sorry , I can't prove a negative. But you should know that..
Of course I wasn't asking you to prove a negative, as I'm sure you're well aware since I posted the statement which I was asking you to prove in the post to which you are responding. I was asking you to prove the following statement you made here:
An important point here, is that contrary to popular ( or unpopular, depending on your perspective ) belief, God had no problem with married Jewish men getting all the strange they could manage ( via rape or otherwise ) , as long as it was not with a married ( to someone else ) Jewish woman.
Not only have you not posted evidence of your statement, but I have provided evidence to the contrary. 1) I pointed out that the Bible does not condone rape, which I believe disproves your statement by itself; and 2) I also said that the Bible does have a problem with promiscuity, and posted some evidence of that as well (a verse from the Bible as well as the fact that the Talmud obviously doesn't have the same read on the Bible as a whole concerning promiscuity that you do). [Although I hadn't researched your implied claim that a man could rape his wife, information on the Internet indicates that the wife, not the husband, had the rights concerning sexual intimacy, so rape of a woman you are married to is apparently also frowned upon (one of the rights of a wife outlined in Exodus 21:10 and maybe elsewhere is termed "onah" in Hebrew, and is usually translated "conjugal rights" or "marital rights").]
Even if you were able to definitively refute the evidence I presented, you must still provide evidence to support your statement. And indeed the burden of proof is on you to do so.
-Bri
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