You mean non-realities?What types of evidence are appropriate to justify beliefs about realities that, by definition, may be beyond the reach of scientific methods?
You mean non-realities?What types of evidence are appropriate to justify beliefs about realities that, by definition, may be beyond the reach of scientific methods?
You old cynic - I am sure this will be the exception that proves the rule.....Probably. I don't fully believe that he is not interested in the supernatural.
Regardless, he has simply restated the already-discussed examples of sources of non-empirical knowledge—logic, mathematics, etc. He didn't engage the discussion of them before, so I have limited faith that he will engage them this time around. It's just a fringe reset.
Cynicism is my favorite source of non-empirical knowledge.You old cynic - I am sure this will the exception that proves the rule.....
Don't be stupid, there are no "realities" that are "beyond the reach of scientific methods", just idiotic fantasies.What types of evidence are appropriate to justify beliefs about realities that, by definition, may be beyond the reach of scientific methods?
Oh good grief, more silly fantasising to avoid reality.But isn't that precisely the epistemological question?
If something cannot be established by scientific methods, does that automatically make it a fantasy, or could there be other forms of rational justification?
I'm not assuming that such things are real. I'm asking whether scientific verification is a necessary condition for rationally justified belief about reality.
You're avoiding the question. Again.I understand that if you want to persuade someone else to accept a claim about reality, objective and testable evidence is very important.
But I'm asking a slightly different epistemological question: is objective, scientifically testable evidence the only possible basis for rational justification?
For example, are logical, mathematical, philosophical, or first-person forms of evidence necessarily incapable of providing rational justification, simply because they aren't scientifically testable?
I'm not assuming that any particular non-scientific claim is true. I'm asking whether scientific testability is a necessary condition for rational justification in general.
There's no such thing. Anything that exists is a phenomenon that can be researched scientifically. Anyone trying to tell you otherwise is lying to you.What types of evidence are appropriate to justify beliefs about realities that, by definition, may be beyond the reach of scientific methods?
What about things that exist, but have no observable effects on the universe?There's no such thing. Anything that exists is a phenomenon that can be researched scientifically. Anyone trying to tell you otherwise is lying to you.
Then in what way can they be said to exist?What about things that exist, but have no observable effects on the universe?
Gubiosak wants to find a way of distinguishing them from things that don't exist.Then in what way can they be said to exist?
He reiterated that he’s talking about abstract, non-empirical sources of knowledge like mathematics, logic, and morals. We agreed from the very beginning that there are non-empirical sources of knowledge. We discussed the nature of the knowledge produced by these other methods. We resisted all the baiting to adopt “strong scientism.” The OP explicitly abandoned the thread.Gubiosak wants to find a way of distinguishing them from things that don't exist.
And thus are we once again drawn into the inevitable epistemological dead-end that is solipsism.I think the toothache example actually illustrates the distinction I'm interested in. The X-ray can provide objective evidence for the physical condition associated with the pain, but it does not directly observe the subjective experience of pain itself. We infer the experience from the person's first-person report, together with the objective evidence. So I'm wondering whether we should distinguish between evidence that objectively verifies an external physical condition and evidence that rationally justifies a belief about a first-person experience. If we accept that subjective reports can have some epistemic value even when they cannot be independently verified in the same way as an X-ray, then perhaps scientific testability is not the only possible form of rational justification. I'm not claiming that subjective experience is sufficient to establish any arbitrary claim about reality. I'm asking whether it can ever constitute genuine evidence, and if so, what limits should apply.
Buy the OP offers a glimmer of hope. "Accept any stupid ◊◊◊◊ as the equivalent of empirical evidence and we're all singing Kumbaya".And thus are we once again drawn into the inevitable epistemological dead-end that is solipsism.
If I can't directly observe your pain, how can I know that it exists? I don't know that you think like I do. You say you do, but there's no scientifically testable evidence that you do. I can't know that you experience emotions like I do, I can't know that you have memories like I do, therefore your existence as a person, being without scientifically testable evidence, is in doubt.
Thud. We've hit bottom. Nowhere to go from here.
What types of evidence are appropriate to justify beliefs about realities that, by definition, may be beyond the reach of scientific methods?
And how. He keeps using paranormal-coded language but then disavows that he’s talking about the paranormal. He says he’s talking about things like logic, math, and morals. But those pursuits aren’t evidence-based. So it’s dumb to ask what kind of evidence supports them.Are you asking about types of evidence that are "beyond the reach of scientific methods", or beliefs that are "beyond...[etc.]"? Either way, the question seems incoherent.
Inference is normal in science. There is a statistical correlation between observed tooth decay and reported pain. From that we infer that the pain is 'real'. To assume otherwise would be foolish.I think the toothache example actually illustrates the distinction I'm interested in. The X-ray can provide objective evidence for the physical condition associated with the pain, but it does not directly observe the subjective experience of pain itself. We infer the experience from the person's first-person report, together with the objective evidence.
Yes. All data is only as good as the instrument that measured it. This applies not just to the sensor but also data processing and storage. Our senses are very good in some ways, but very poor in others. Our brains are generally good at pattern matching and removing noise, but are prone to misinterpretation and the storage is very lossy.So I'm wondering whether we should distinguish between evidence that objectively verifies an external physical condition and evidence that rationally justifies a belief about a first-person experience.
Subjective experience is genuine evidence, it's just not very reliable evidence. It can be just as valuable as physical evidence. It can also be completely wrong. But that applies to other instruments too.If we accept that subjective reports can have some epistemic value even when they cannot be independently verified in the same way as an X-ray, then perhaps scientific testability is not the only possible form of rational justification. I'm not claiming that subjective experience is sufficient to establish any arbitrary claim about reality. I'm asking whether it can ever constitute genuine evidence, and if so, what limits should apply.
Actually there is somewhere to go, because this is a bogus argument. To say we can't 'know' that other people experience pain and emotions like we do is wrong. We have the same biology, so we can infer that it works the same. It's not direct knowledge, but it is valid logic.And thus are we once again drawn into the inevitable epistemological dead-end that is solipsism.
If I can't directly observe your pain, how can I know that it exists? I don't know that you think like I do. You say you do, but there's no scientifically testable evidence that you do. I can't know that you experience emotions like I do, I can't know that you have memories like I do, therefore your existence as a person, being without scientifically testable evidence, is in doubt.
Thud. We've hit bottom. Nowhere to go from here.
It's logical, but there is no direct evidence of it, which is the point.Actually there is somewhere to go, because this is a bogus argument. To say we can't 'know' that other people experience pain and emotions like we do is wrong. We have the same biology, so we can infer that it works the same. It's not direct knowledge, but it is valid logic.