Furcifer
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- Joined
- Apr 30, 2007
- Messages
- 13,797
That's an entirely seperate arguement where you are arguing the indefensible. We've repeated shown that the increase in CO2 concentration is not linear, nor is the rate of increase, it's accelerating! You've been told this countless times. I've linked to Tamino's post three times. If you have a problem with that analysis please feel free to critique it.
You can see from tshaitanaku's abridged numbers it's not "accelerating"
2001 371.07 0.45% change from 2000
2002 373.16 0.56% change from 2001
2003 375.81 0.71% change from 2002
2004 377.54 0.46% change from 2003
2005 379.78 0.59% change from 2004
2006 381.86 0.54% change from 2005
2007 383.73 0.49% change from 2006
2008 385.54 0.47% change from 2007
2009 387.35 0.47% change from 2008
2010 389.78 0.63% change from 2009
It's fairly (approximately) steady at 0.5% (we've already covered why this is 0.5% and not 1%)
A strawman, we're discussing conduitions now, not 100,000 years ago.
No we're talking about the climate, not the weather.
It depends on the definition. I will grant you that the WMO definition for a heatwave does refer to a number of days above a limit above the mean for that location. But this is looking at individual occurances (weather), not trends over long periods (climate). This can only be done when using a consistant definition.
It's somewhat of a moving target, yes. But trying to fix a definition is futile and ultimately pointless. The climate changes with or without us humans messing about.
There are many areas where heatwaves are defined by discrete temperatures,
Wait, you just said you wanted to fix the definition, now you're saying "well it's defined differently in different areas, different temperatures"
More strawmen, comparing absolute temperatures in different points around the globe is ridiculous.Ad hom arguements as well. Especially since it's you that has shown ignorance of basic maths (difference between linear, and quadratic curves) and statistics (the behaviour of a normal distribution)Whoa, that's some dodge. I'll just take it that means that you have no idea of where to link to for your claim.
Who do you think you're kidding? I have a degree in science, major physics minor math. I have documented evidence from a recognized University (plus the debt
What I don't understand is why people claiming to have basically the same experience not understanding what a linearization is. lomiller seems to grasp the linearization of a log function using log paper, but not using a percentage. What I find intellectually dishonest about this whole conversation is that fact that people acknowledge you can linearize anything, but for some magical reason the Mauna Loa data can't be. As if it's immune to basic math.
The value of 1 only equals toa normalised curve, that's why I used the phrase 'sum of all probabilities' (IIRC). As pointed out by CApelDodger you seem to have a blindness towards the key phase of the area under the curve exceeding a given value (I've bolded the text so that you don't miss it this time.)
And you seem to be blind to the fact that the mean hasn't been adjusted in those graphs.
That being said, I'm not following you here. What's a "phase of the area"? Do you mean like a slice between two temperatures? "Phase" generally suggest a time period and I'm not sure how you are getting at that, perhaps from the frequency? I don't see how a phase could exceed a given value from that graph I'm sorry.
Agreed!