Not if external forces deteriorate the circumstances in the camps. And that was the case. Germans outside camps died in large numbers as well as a result of the Anglo bombing campaign.
False, because many of the Jews in those camps in the first place wouldn't have been in them — much less in Germany, in some cases, or Poland — if they hadn't been Jews.
You can dance around that as much as you like, but it wouldn't fly in any court in the world.
Agree. The deportation decision was formalized.
That makes no sense. Deportation had already been going on for over three years. That people would hold a meeting to coordinate and provide information about a policy that was that old would make no sense.
Breathtaking breakthrough!!! Where, when and by who? Proof? Links?
For one thing, you've already admitted that the Einsatzgruppen case is valid, i.e., without any procedural or judicial irregularities. Ohlendorf testified there that there were oral orders. So did Eichmann in Jerusalem in '61. I've already provided links to Ohlendorf's testimony.
That must be the same Yehuda who earlier in this thread confided that big surprises were possible regarding the slave labot camps.
No, he didn't say that. He said, "It may contain surprises. We don't know. It has material that nobody's ever seen."
And one doesn't "confide" in the third largest newspaper in the United States. Plus, the archive's been open for years now. Where's your "big surprise"?
The killings yes. But you are aware that according to international law it is allowed to simply shoot partizans.
First of all, that isn't true. While partisans are not afforded the protection of international law, it is still a crime to shoot them, particularly without a trial.
Furthermore, under the Soviet system, partisan units were to form on their own and then report to local party leadership to receive commissars and military commanders. Because the USSR was attacked, this was actually legal under international law. International law does not expect a country that has been subjected to surprise attack to fight back only with a regular army, not does it expect the citizens of an invaded country to just go along and not repel the invaders.
But we're talking about Jewish women and children in over half the cases. Or is that OK by you?
And I am reluctant to agree that 1800 persons in total can kill 1M people in an area as large as the United States.
They were active for well over a year and they were attached to the military in four separate army groups. Not only is it possible, but it's probable, given the time and place.
You see, in contrast with Amsterdam, Jewish partizans in the USSR were not wearing these convenient yellow stars. The Einsatzgruppen not only had to kill the partizans but find them as well. Rather time consuming.
But that presupposes that it had anything to do with partisans at all.
And you're not under the impression that Soviet partisans were entirely, or even mostly, Jewish, are you?
In 1940 the USSR invaded Latvia. The local Jews in large numbers took control of the country as a proxy of Moscow.
Yeah, the Russians invaded it during the Russian Civil War, also.
But that's actually beside the point, because there's a reason I chose Latvia for my example. Any ideas on that one?
True, but this is rubbish . . . as I have showed here.
Really? You proved it?
Here's a small problem with the link you provided: Sverdlov was dead in 1920.
There's a much larger problem with your reasoning, by the way. Let's see if I can break it down for you.
(1) The issue is not what percentage of the membership of a party is Jewish, but rather what percentage of the Jewish population enrolled in a party. By this measurement, the Bolsheviks weren't even the most popular Marxist party, and both Marxist parties had a lower percentage of the Jewish population than the SRs and the Jewish Bund, the latter of which was 100% Jewish in its membership, by the way, as were the Zionist parties.
(2) A further issue is whether any Bolshevik of Jewish ancestry saw his actions as being undertaken on behalf of Jews. The answer to this question is a resounding "no." Routinely, they ignored ethnic and especially religious distinctions in favor of class distinctions.
(3) Beyond that, we need to consider to what extent the Jews who had been powerful within the early Soviet system were even in agreement with one another. Kamenev had taken sides against Trotsky after the Civil War, resulting in Trotsky's expulsion from the party, and the two men were brothers-in-law. Kamenev and Zinoviev had both voted against the November coup against the Provisional Government, while Trotsky had helped lead it.
The bottom line on this one is that, if you're going to try to paint Bolshevism as "Jewish," then what's to stop anyone else from painting Nazism as "German"? I.e., what then would prevent today's Germans from being held responsible for the sins of the past?
According to Hitler Northern Germany was in the hands of the Reds in 1922. Now don't tell me you want to call Dolfie a liar!
That would be amazing, considering that the German Revolution was over by the summer of 1919. If by "reds" Hitler meant the SPD, then he was mistaken. Again.