Janadele, if the Christian scriptures are the word of God how do you account for the following:
Mk. 15:34 - 37: And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying "Eloi, Eloi lama sabachthani?" that is "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" And some of them that stood by, when they heard it said, behold he is calling Elijah." And one ran and filled a sponge with vinegar and put it on a reed and gave it to him to drink, saying, "Let us see whether Elijah will come and take him down." And Jesus cried out in a loud voice and gave up the spirit.
Mt. 27:46 - 50: echoes Mark. However Matthew corrects Mark's use of Aramaic (Eloi for "My God") to Hebrew (Eli for "My God"), since this is a quote of the opening lines of Psalm 22, attributed to King David.
Lk. 23:46: And when Jesus had cried out in a loud voice, he said, "Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit." And having said thus he gave up the spirit.
Jn. 19:30: When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, "It is finished." And he bowed his head and gave up the spirit.
So, were Jesus' last words on the cross a cry of desolation - "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" - as Mark and Matthew have it; a statement of acceptance - "Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit," - as Luke has it; or were they a statement of accomplishment - "It is finished," - as John has it? Bear in mind that all three versions are given as the last words Jesus says before dying and that they are all at odds with each other. Either none of them are right or only one is. How can there be such disagreement in the word of God?