Because if you say that there is “evidence” of the rapes of Assange in the police files but then you say that you are not sure that what is written in the police files is the truth about Assange` s alleged “rape”, then what you have in the police files is not “evidence” of the rapes of Assange, but merely evidence of what the police has written and what the witnesses have said.
Which can be the truth or not.
Like I've said before, it appears you haven't the foggiest idea what the word "evidence" means.
Let me educate you as to how this "judicial system" business works:
1. First, there is an accusation.
2. Then there is gathering of evidence (normally this is done by the police).
3. Then, if there is sufficient evidence, there is a trial.
4. Then guilt is established as "guilty" or "not guilty", or in some cases, degree of guilt.
5. Then a guilty party is sentenced according to the punishment scale for his or her offense.
With the Assange case, the judicial system is currently stuck on 3, as there can be no trial unless Assange surrenders himself to justice. Courts in Sweden and the UK have determined that the evidence against Assange is good enough to warrant pursuing the next legal step.
What this means is that the question of whether Assange is guilty or the crimes he is accused of or not cannot be determined until Assange surrenders himself. That, in turn, means that any evidence against him will remain in the police files until such time that he finally does surrender himself.
Any assumption of the evidence contained in the police files is irrelevant at present, as said evidence only becomes relevant in a trial setting. The judicial system does not assume guilt or innocence before a trial, which is what you are apparently advocating in Assange's case.
And I was apparently correct in suspecting you wouldn't be able to understand me.