Gobbeldee-gook followed by an asinine question.
Wait a second - I am debating tempesta and Clayton, and the only one whose question you call "asinine" is me?!?!? Does this imply that you think anything at all that tempesta or Clayton (particularly Clayton) write is anything but asinine? Seriously??? You find nothing wrong with their posts? Or is this the old "the enemy of my enemy is my friend" stance? How asinine!
We all know that the entire upper portion of WTC 7 moved down as a single unit. We can see that in the videos. NIST saw that in the videos. That's why they said:
"The entire building above the buckled-column region then moved downward in a single unit, as observed"
As a matter of fact, no, I don't know that. I know however that the east part of the core moved several seconds before the rest, and that the western core moved before the face. Maybe this is semantics, but in my book, that means the entire upper portion of the building did NOT move as a single unit, because portions of it moved earlier than others. A fact that not even YOU deny. It doesn't matter much what NIST writes. Their wording may be imprecise here. I claim they do not really mean the entire building (core, all floors, all walls), but the part that was actually
observed (the north and west faces)
Stage 1
As the columns buckled,
STOP!
What do you say? The columns buckled in stage 1? Wow!
That is the very thing that, apparently, tempesta denies, when he writes:
This is so obviously wrong, it is hard to come up with an idea how to make it even more obvious to you, who can't grasp the simple concept that buckked steel becomes a liability, not a support, to a structure. Remember, we are talking about stage 2, which is AFTER the strructural steel in question has buckled inelastically and completely.
There is no evidence to support this. Bring it.
Obviously, I was implying that before stage 2, during stage 1, columns buckled. You say the very same thing. Tempesta says there is no evidence for it.
And you call my question, what other theory tempesta has to explain what was observed during stage 1 "asinine"?!? Give me a break!
the center of the roof line moved down ~7 feet and the NE corner moved down ~3 feet. .
Then there was a slight pause of .25s in the center and .5s at the NE corner, when the building was not moving down.
Stage 2
Then the entire building above what was buckled columns went into free fall acceleration for ~100 feet.
http://img857.imageshack.us/img857/5822/graphcompare.jpg
Are you with me so far?
Absolutely! That is what I tried to explain to tempesta: During stage 1, columns buckled, and in stage 2, everything had completely buckled, which is the best explanation for free fall. How would tempesta, or you, explain free fall without completely buckled columns? That was my asinine question, but I see we are on the same side here. Does that make your explanation asinine, too?
Here is where the problem arises. You guys try to gobbleldee-gook around the fact that FFA means falling thru air - NO resistance, no columns at all.
Where did I gobbleldee-gook around this?? Did I not write earlier in this thread...
...
Stage 2 is reached when the increasing acceleration / buckling reached the point where the north face fell essentially at g means that by then, all columns had buckled. If you disagree with this last statement, you disagree with your own claims.
???
How does this fundamentally differ from your own explanation?
...
The 52 undamaged exterior columns did NOT all "snap" at the same time, they continued buckling well into the period of FFA and they were providing resistance as Sunder said they were.
"[/FONT][/FONT][/COLOR]there was structural resistance that was provided in this particular case.[FONT="]"
Wait a second ... we have a force of m*g acting downwards. Then we have a force of m*aresistance<>0 acting upwards. The result is an acceleration of the mass m of g.
This means that there must be an additional force acting aunknown downwards, for the following equation to pan out:
m*g = m*g - m*aresistance + m*aunknown
Are you with me?
So what is this aunknown during stage 2? Rockets pushing down?
He is right about that. The NIST model is providing resistance during the time of FFA and you can't have FFA if there is any resistance.
http://img841.imageshack.us/img841/7267/nistwtc7modelvideo14s16.jpg
Stop. Tempesta and I were discussing what really happened, as observed:
Stage 1 - acceleration increasing from 0 to g
Stage 2 - acceleration essentially at g.
We were NOT discussing any NIST model!
FFA means NO resistance so the NIST model does not do what WTC 7 did. To achieve FFA, all the columns on 7 to 8 floors must be removed.
No. It suffices if the buckle and break.
Or do you deny that a buckled and broken column provides no resistane?
You already taught us that, during stage 1, columns buckled. Do you stand by that? Columns buckling resukt in a decrease of resistance, that is a decrease in force acting upwards, resulting in an increased acceleration downwards. When acceleration reaches g, that means upward forces have reached 0, that means buckling is completed, columns have totally failed. What is wrong about that? Don't tell me the NIST model is. I don't know if it is or isn't, that is totally irrelevant here.
All I want you and tempesta to explain to me how else resistance is reduced, if not by buckling columns.
I would like to ask YOU to then teach tempesta what the observations during stage 1 mean in terms of buckling columns!
I hope you have by now understood that my question wasnÄ't asinine - it was spot on, directed at someone too stupid to realize that the observation of stage 1 means "columns are buckling".