Blue Mountain
Resident Skeptical Hobbit
That's the essence of the fractional reserve system: banks don't need to keep 100% of their customers' money squirreled away in its vaults. In a 10% fractional reserve scenario, they need keep only 10% of their customers' money in their vaults (or on deposit with a Reserve Bank), and loan out 90% to other customers. Or maybe even the same one who deposited the money in the first place ...Ok, I understand this concept of "borrowing from the future" as you describe it (labour/business without security e.g), and the difference with the chattel loan (where there is physical object like house or car as security. It is a way of describing future expectations of the bank or something - but what I meant is you cannot borrow anything from the future literally can you? Or can you? So were does the bank get the money from to be able to make the loan?
AND who is really paying, I mean the bank takes the risk but uses the money of it's savers doesn't it?
The bank uses the money it has in it's accounts (those of savers/depositors) to create new loans, and it NEEDS this money - otherwise it is not able to create new loans - without any deposits/any money in their accounts/vaults/etc a bank cannot create new loans. 0 money means no new loans... That's what I understood (?)
So they (THE BANK) actually BORROWS MONEY FROM THEIR CUSTOMERS (the people who made deposits) and then lends this money out as credit/money/whatever to some-one else. This is why some banks get in trouble if they have lots of bad loans - they cannot pay the savers back / etc because they borrowed money from the savers and gave it out as loans to other people which didn't pay these loans back.
So the bank borrows money from the savers but does not discredit the account of this saver (the saver probably doesn't even notice all this happening, geheh) and the saver still sees his total amount at the ATM which he deposited and should be able to withdraw at leastsome of his cash - again if everybody does this at the same time, some banks will be in big trouble/etc like in Argentina, etc.
So this way a bank creates new money/credit - using the FRB system (it has to keep a certain % of the money of the savers in their vault/accounts/etc as reserve, and the rest it can write out as new loans (new credit/money/iou/etc/whatever) - NEW MONEY Is created from old money according to the FRB rules - so a bank can (sneakilyuse/borrow certain percentage (say 90% in some countries I think, 80 % in others) money from the savers/depositors and it can then use this money to create loans (new money).
1 more example (just for myself
Looks good. As for the highlighted part, the bank does have something: the right to demand its $90 from mrBorrower if you go to the bank and want all of your $100 back. If mrBorrower can't pay the bank its $90, the bank would be in trouble. (In this case, I think the bank can go to another bank or the Reserve Bank and borrow $90 from them to give to you, and then it has time to go after mrBorrower for its $90. Plus interest, because it's now paying interest0oin the $90 it borrowed from another source to pay you.)So I go to the bank deposit $100.
Bank has nothing, but it can now borrow $90 from me (without me noticing, or maybe this is written in small letters somewhere?) keep $10 in the vault as reserve (but my account still says $100) and pass this $90 as a loan to mrBorrower (who gets an account with $90 on it, but also has to pay back this $90 (with interest I guess
So now I have $100 and MrBorrower has $90 to spend ($190 money in circulation), bank has nothing, but will get interest form mrBorrower and has to pay me the saver some interest as well (probably less than it gets from mrBorrowerHopefully mrBorrower will do good business and make money to pay of the loan+interest an hopefully I will not demand my $100 bucks at once, this might be a problem for bank...
Ehm... Is this right, more or less?Maybe I am wrong but this is the (simple) way I understood this FRB thing...
Yes, that appears to be the way it works. I haven't sat down and invested the time required to plow through all of Modern Money Mechanics to understand it. You can get a copy here [PDF, 40 pages].In reality a bank has of course many customers (borrowers and depositors) and I think it does not literally borrow from me (I guess? but from all the depositors accounts in general (?))
But my point was a BANK needs money to create new money/loans by this multiplier formula (the % reserve fraction thingand the bank borrows this money from its customers... Or maybe if it has money of itself it could use that to create loans, could be I dunno (?).
This "borrowing from the future" is just a concept that states expectations that a borrower will do something with the money to be able to pay it back + INTEREST
So they don't create it out of nothing and they borrow it from their customers... That's what I think at this moment... Is that right? or terribly wrong?
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