ehm I start with sayin I am just a crazy painter so I know nothing@all

but I try to understand some of it...
I'll start by saying I'm a systems analyst, computer programmer, and systems administrator: my experience is with the technical world of computers, programming languages, and operating systems. I'm not an economist.
To me, the concept of "borrowing from the future" is shorthand. This is different from a chattel loan such as a car loan, where if you default on the loan the bank takes your car. But banks also loan money to individuals and companies that are starting and running businesses. In this case the bank is on slightly riskier ground, given that there may not be much in the way of goods to repossess if the business defaults. Yet they still make these loans. Obviously they're expecting to get their money back, with interest. What's they're investing in, therefore, is the person or people in the business, and their skill, diligence and work--in other words, labour--that they will be putting into the business. Since that labour is expected to be performed in the near future (over the time the loan is expected to be repaid), in this sense they are borrowing from the future.
The bank is paying now for labour to be performed in the future.
Ok, I understand this concept of "borrowing from the future" as you describe it (labour/business without security e.g), and the difference with the chattel loan (where there is physical object like house or car as security. It is a way of describing future expectations of the bank or something - but what I meant is you cannot borrow anything from the future literally can you? Or can you? So were does the bank get the money from to be able to make the loan?
AND who is really paying, I mean the bank takes the risk but uses the money of it's savers doesn't it?
The bank uses the money it has in it's accounts (those of savers/depositors) to create new loans, and it NEEDS this money - otherwise it is not able to create new loans - without any deposits/any money in their accounts/vaults/etc a bank cannot create new loans. 0 money means no new loans... That's what I understood (?)
So they (THE BANK) actually BORROWS MONEY FROM THEIR CUSTOMERS (the people who made deposits) and then lends this money out as credit/money/whatever to some-one else. This is why some banks get in trouble if they have lots of bad loans - they cannot pay the savers back / etc because they borrowed money from the savers and gave it out as loans to other people which didn't pay these loans back.
So the bank borrows money from the savers but does not discredit the account of this saver (the saver probably doesn't even notice all this happening, geheh) and the saver still sees his total amount at the ATM which he deposited and should be able to withdraw at least

some of his cash - again if everybody does this at the same time, some banks will be in big trouble/etc like in Argentina, etc.
So this way a bank creates new money/credit - using the FRB system (it has to keep a certain % of the money of the savers in their vault/accounts/etc as reserve, and the rest it can write out as new loans (new credit/money/iou/etc/whatever) - NEW MONEY Is created from old money according to the FRB rules - so a bank can (sneakily

use/borrow certain percentage (say 90% in some countries I think, 80 % in others) money from the savers/depositors and it can then use this money to create loans (new money).
1 more example (just for myself
So I go to the bank deposit $100.
Bank has nothing, but it can now borrow $90 from me (without me noticing, or maybe this is written in small letters somewhere?) keep $10 in the vault as reserve (but my account still says $100) and pass this $90 as a loan to mrBorrower (who gets an account with $90 on it, but also has to pay back this $90 (with interest I guess
So now I have $100 and MrBorrower has $90 to spend ($190 money in circulation), bank has nothing, but will get interest form mrBorrower and has to pay me the saver some interest as well (probably less than it gets from mrBorrower

Hopefully mrBorrower will do good business and make money to pay of the loan+interest an hopefully I will not demand my $100 bucks at once, this might be a problem for bank...
Ehm... Is this right, more or less?

Maybe I am wrong but this is the (simple) way I understood this FRB thing...
In reality a bank has of course many customers (borrowers and depositors) and I think it does not literally borrow from me (I guess? but from all the depositors accounts in general (?))
But my point was a BANK needs money to create new money/loans by this multiplier formula (the % reserve fraction thing

and the bank borrows this money from it's customers... Or maybe if it has money of itself it could use that to create loans, could be I dunno (?).
This "borrowing from the future" is just a concept that states expectations that a borrower will do something with the money to be able to pay it back + INTEREST
They're not creating it out of nothing. They're borrowing it from the future on the premise that future labor will be more efficient and will create greater return than at present.
So they don't create it out of nothing and they borrow it from their customers... Thats what I think at this moment... Is that right? or terribly wrong

?