The Incredible odds of fulfilled bible prophecy

Surely only relevant if the family were still there. In Joseph's case he c;early knew no one in Bethlehem hence the stable.

Not necessarily, The Inn in Bethlehem was filled. Having all the House of David return to Bethlehem could very well be the reason the Inn in Bethlehem was filled.

Also family lineage was much more important back then to both the Jews and Romans.
 
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Not necessarily, The Inn in Bethlehem was filled. Having all the House of David return to Bethlehem could very well be the reason the Inn in Bethlehem was filled.

Also family lineage was much more important back then to both the Jews and Romans.

So was hospitality. If I were to return to the area where my family originates my cousins would not hear of me staying in an Inn. The Jews likewise are very family orientated, if Joseph had family in Bethlehem I find it hard to believe they would have let him and his pregnant wife sleep in an Inn stable.
 
There is no evidence for that. But there is plenty of evidence that the Roman Empire taxed the people of the area. And why would Luke make this all up (about taxation) in a letter to his friend, which subsequently became the Gospel of Luke?


To retroactively fit Jesus into the messianic prophecy about Bethlehem.
 
So was hospitality. If I were to return to the area where my family originates my cousins would not hear of me staying in an Inn. The Jews likewise are very family orientated, if Joseph had family in Bethlehem I find it hard to believe they would have let him and his pregnant wife sleep in an Inn stable.

Who said his family still had to live there, people and families do move from where they were born. And even if they did, he might not know where they lived, or he could have arrived late at night.
 
Who would have thought so many zeroes could fit up an ass :eye-poppi

This particular ass has nothing BUT zeros.

Game

Not necessarily, The Inn in Bethlehem was filled. Having all the House of David return to Bethlehem could very well be the reason the Inn in Bethlehem was filled.

Also family lineage was much more important back then to both the Jews and Romans.

Set

Who said his family still had to live there, people and families do move from where they were born. And even if they did, he might not know where they lived, or he could have arrived late at night.
Match.


Seriously, why do you all waste your time on this moron? He's never going to concede ANY point that wasn't made in the Bible or supported by one of his "experts" that have no more credibility than a bag of foetid opossum pus.
 
The Romans did a lot of census taking is there any other record of them making people return to their ancestor's town of origin?

Actually, Luke uses the word taxed or taxing instead of census in the King James version Luke 2: 1-3. I don't know if there is a record but historians don't always record everything. That doesn't mean it didn't happen. The physician Luke who was very precise about people and events and places recorded it. That's good enough for me. You certainly can't say the Roman's didn't do taxing. Even one of the apostles, Matthew, was a tax collector.
 
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Game



Set


Match.


Seriously, why do you all waste your time on this moron? He's never going to concede ANY point that wasn't made in the Bible or supported by one of his "experts" that have no more credibility than a bag of foetid opossum pus.

Empty non-informative attack the messenger post #106 and counting. Probably a rule breaking post too.
 
Seriously, why do you all waste your time on this moron? He's never going to concede ANY point that wasn't made in the Bible or supported by one of his "experts" that have no more credibility than a bag of foetid opossum pus.

But he has to concede to recorded history right? I mean I presented all kinds of historical facts. I hope he actually read them though they were long.

I presented ACTUAL facts showing:

Joseph would not have taken place in the Census as he was from Galilee which was separate from Iudaea and Syria where the only Census during the governorship of Quirinius took place.

Herod died 10 years before Quirinius became governor of Syria and thus would not have even heard of Jesus' birth never mind tried to have him killed.

Judas couldn't possibly have been paid in 'peices of silver' as the Seleucid coinage was in use for 141 years and 'weighed peices' hadn't been used in the region for almost 300.

There are two conflicting accounts of the end of Juda. One which completely refutes any supposed prophecy (Giving back the 30 pieces of silver in one, buying a field with it in another)

Surely this should be considered? I haven't been given any info refuting it.
 
You know, I was actually planning on starting a thread about Jesus' failure to fulfill any biblical prophecies, and was even going to challenge DOC to cough up any prophecies he feels are convincing which haven't yet been debunked. Having read over most of these a while back, I can say with little remaining doubt that NONE of the alleged prophecies have been fulfilled at all. Posting a link to some Christian site with a tedious list of "fulfilled prophecies" doesn't prove squat, because I could easily counter by posting a link to a skeptic site that debunks every last one of them.

I see that DOC has already posted some of his favorites. Even though they've already been shredded by Abe_The_Man, This Guy, and Ocelot, I just felt like driving the final nail in the coffin. I should point out that anyone can make a prophecy and be correct, provided that there is no specific time or place given. If there were a real prophecy about Jesus, I would expect to see at least some mention of details such as virgin birth, son of God, prophet, miraculous powers, crucifixion, sacrificing himself for sins, resurrection, or ascension into heaven. All of these prophecies are disappointing in this respect, to say the least.
Well here are 3 out of the 13 he listed. He also said about 2000 out of 2500 have been fulfilled so far.

(1) Some time before 500 B.C. the prophet Daniel proclaimed that Israel's long-awaited Messiah would begin his public ministry 483 years after the issuing of a decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem (Daniel 9:25-26). He further predicted that the Messiah would be "cut off," killed, and that this event would take place prior to a second destruction of Jerusalem. Abundant documentation shows that these prophecies were perfectly fulfilled in the life (and crucifixion) of Jesus Christ. The decree regarding the restoration of Jerusalem was issued by Persia's King Artaxerxes to the Hebrew priest Ezra in 458 B.C., 483 years later the ministry of Jesus Christ began in Galilee. (Remember that due to calendar changes, the date for the start of Christ's ministry is set by most historians at about 26 A.D. Also note that from 1 B.C. to 1 A.D. is just one year.) Jesus' crucifixion occurred only a few years later, and about four decades later, in 70 A.D. came the destruction of Jerusalem by Titus.

(Probability of chance fulfillment = 1 in 105.)*
All we have here is the supposed time of death of this king. "Masiach" or "Messiah" means "anointed one" as in an anointed prince of Israel. The obvious problem with this prophecy is that Jesus was never an anointed monarch. Now let's look at the timing. Daniel 9:25-27 NIV

The 7 weeks and 62 weeks are two different periods of time. The Jews, from whom the scripture originated, never add these two periods together. So when do we start counting down the prophecy? There are four possible dates, as shown by this Christian website.

539 BC - Cyrus permitted Jews to return to the land and rebuild their Temple.
520 BC - Darius permitted Jews to complete the rebuilding of the Temple.
457 BC - Artaxerxes allowed Ezra authority to lead the nation in the Laws of God.
445 BC - Artaxerxes gives Nememiah permission to rebuild the walls of Jerusalem.

Adding 434 or 483 years to each of these dates (because I'm being generous) gives us:

539 BC = 105 BC or 56 BC
520 BC = 86 BC or 37 BC
457 BC = 23 BC or 26 AD
445 BC = 11 BC or 38 AD

For an alleged prophecy with such specific figures, these still miss the date of the crucifixion, and notice that the closest match uses the erroneous 69 years. (There must be something about that number that Christians like.) So this prophecy contains only one detail that could apply to any ruler, and Jesus was never an anointed king. Whoops.
(2) In approximately 700 B.C. the prophet Micah named the tiny village of Bethlehem as the birthplace of Israel's Messiah (Micah 5:2). The fulfillment of this prophecy in the birth of Christ is one of the most widely known and widely celebrated facts in history.

(Probability of chance fulfillment = 1 in 105.)
Way to ignore the rest of the chapter. (Yes, it's relevant.) You can read the part of Micah 5 that you leave out HERE.

First of all, these passages clearly describe a military ruler, which Jesus clearly was not. Secondly, there's no way this prophecy could ever refer to Jesus unless he somehow managed to defeat the Assyrians some 600 years after they ceased to exist. Third, Israel was defeated by the Romans about 40 years after the death of Jesus, which could hardly be construed as living securely or in peace.
(3) In the fifth century B.C. a prophet named Zechariah declared that the Messiah would be betrayed for the price of a slave—thirty pieces of silver, according to Jewish law-and also that this money would be used to buy a burial ground for Jerusalem's poor foreigners (Zechariah 11:12-13). Bible writers and secular historians both record thirty pieces of silver as the sum paid to Judas Iscariot for betraying Jesus, and they indicate that the money went to purchase a "potter's field," used—just as predicted—for the burial of poor aliens (Matthew 27:3-10).

(Probability of chance fulfillment = 1 in 1011.)

http://www.reasons.org/resources/apologetics/prophecy.shtml
If you'd bothered to read the whole of Zechariah 11:4-15, you'd realize that this is a curse from Yahweh, and not a messianic prophecy by any stretch. Besides that, how can we rule out the possibility that the author of Matthew, knowing of the passage in Zechariah, wrote the story in just to make it look like a fulfilled prophecy? We can't. It's the same circular argument as before.


Probability that DOC will stick his fingers in his ears and start singing loudly now: 100%
 
Actually, Luke uses the word taxed or taxing instead of census in the King James version Luke 2: 1-3. I don't know if there is a record but historians don't always record everything. That doesn't mean it didn't happen. The physician Luke who was very precise about people and events and places recorded it. That's good enough for me. You certainly can't say the Roman's didn't do taxing. Even one of the apostles, Matthew, was a tax collector.

I found an excellent explanation of this at abideinchrist.com

http://www.abideinchrist.com/messages/lk2v1.html
The King James reads, "that all the world should be taxed." A more accurate translation is, “Now it came about in those days that a decree went out from Caesar Augustus, that a census be taken of all the inhabited earth. This was the first census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria” (2:1-2). The “census” was a registration or enrollment of the people. The taxation would follow based on the census or registration. It was really a registration for taxing purposes. The census is for the registration of all citizens in the Roman Empire so the government could collect taxes in the near future. This was the first of regular censuses to follow every fourteen years.

So you see the purpose of the census was for taxing as we have all been saying. Think about this. Rome is not going to tax them once and then leave it be. No they are going to tax them every year. Are they expecting everyone to return to the city where their tribe was originally based every year to pay taxes? Not likely. Rather they took a census to find out how much tax each area should be paying the better to enforce the taxation.
 
I'll post without reading all the nonsense.......

seems to me all you "skeptics" just wait and beg for a post like this.

Be it from "mayday" or "doc", doesn't matter.

What would the JREF forums be without such posters?

Think about that? ;)

p.s. 10 pages coming soon to a computer near you. :)
 
Originally Posted by kmortis

Seriously, why do you all waste your time on this moron? He's never going to concede ANY point that wasn't made in the Bible or supported by one of his "experts" that have no more credibility than a bag of foetid opossum pus.


Empty non-informative attack the messenger post #106 and counting.

Non-informative only in that no one here requires kmortis help to know whether or not you're a moron.

Probably a rule breaking post too.


Don't think so. I checked the rules- probably that it's a rule breaking post is 1 in 10000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 0000000...
I'll stop there but the 1 should be followed by 2000 zeros
 
I think this site answers the above question very well, and it also gives a referral of Luke being a very good historian that joobz asked about earlier. The mere fact that Luke even mentions all of these people and events shows just how "detailed" his gospel account was, and why he is considered a first rate historian.

from the article "When did Luke 2 census occur":

"To date, the only census documented outside the Bible near this time under Quirinius is the one referred to by the historian Josephus (Antiquities XVIII, 26 [ii.1], which he says took place in 6 A.D.

But notice that Luke 2:2 says that the census taken around the time Joseph and Mary went down to Bethlehem was the "first" census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria. This implies that there was a later census--most likely the one referred to by Josephus--which Dr. Luke would have also certainly known about.

There is good reason to believe that Quirinius was actually twice in a position of command (the Greek expression hegemoneuo in Luke 2:2 which is often translated "governor" really just means "to be leading" or "in charge of") over the province of Syria, which included Judea as a political subdivision. The first time would have been when he was leading military action against the Homonadensians during the period between 12 and 2 B.C. His title may even have been "military governor."

http://www.christiananswers.net/q-aiia/census-luke2.html

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Census_of_Quirinius
Zumpt's theory received widespread support[35], especially when supported by the historian Theodor Mommsen, who interpreted the Tiburtine Inscription, a Roman inscription discovered in 1746, as referring to someone who had twice been legate (governor) of Syria, and speculated that this might refer to Quirinius.[36]. For some time, this became the mainstream position among biblical scholars. In 1896 the Scottish archaeologist Sir William Ramsay developed this theory further, although he argued that Quirinius had been governor as far back as 10 BC, alongside Saturninus.[37]

In 1886, however, the theologian Emil Schürer, in his monumental study, Geschichte des judischen Volks im Zeitalter Jesu Christi (A History of the Jewish People in the Time of Jesus Christ), closely criticised the traditional view. He raised five points which showed, he believed, that the Luke account could not be historically accurate: (1) nothing is known in history of a general census by Augustus; (2) in a Roman census Joseph would not have had to travel to Bethlehem, and Mary would not have to travel at all; (3) no Roman census would have been made in Judea during the reign of Herod; (4) Josephus records no such census, and it would have been a notable innovation; (5) Quirinius was not governor of Syria until long after the reign of Herod.[38]
[/QUOTE]
*bolding mine

The only evidence to support the idea Quirinius was governor of Syria twice is an inscription reffering to someone who was governor of Syria twice and this person might be Quirinius. You really have to take that on faith as it is not evidence

I respect opinions of Oxford historians who write 3 volume works (partially) about the time Jesus existed and about the empire that controlled the land Jesus lived in.

If you feel that way about an Oxford historian surely you will feel that way about a Theologian who became in 1873 professor extraordinarius at Leipzig and eventually (1895) professor ordinarius at Göttingen who wrote a monumental study about the time Jesus existed. Geschichte des judischen Volks im Zeitalter Jesu Christi (A History of the Jewish People in the Time of Jesus Christ).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Emil_Schürer

As a Professor and a Theologian surely he is probably the most qualified person to make a decision on the issue of Quirinius' governorship as well as the truthfullness of the gospel of Luke right? Well he calls shenanigans on both of these.
 
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I see:
Bible makes prediction
Bible says prediction was fullfilled
No outside source exists verifying the fullfillment of prediction.

This happens a bunch of times in the bible.

So Jesus is the son of god?

There's a lot of predictions made in the Lord of the Rings that came true in the Lord of the Rings, Does that make the Lord of the Rings real?

:roll:

DOC said:
Not really. All the Caesars after Caesar Augustus were referred to as Caesar and Augustus.

[bolding mine]

Like Marcus Aurelius? (121 CE -180 CE)

Or Nero? (37 CE - 68 CE)

Or Hadrian? (76 CE - 138 CE)

Or Trajan? (53 CE - 117 CE)

Caesar Augustus lived from 63 BCE to 14 CE , so all those other emperors followed him. They almost certainly incorporated "Caesar Augustus" into their names, but they weren't "referred to" as "Caesar Augustus."
 
Your the one who originally brought Thomas Arnold's name into this thread not me. I was just responding to your post where you used his name. If you don't want people to use his quote don't bring in his name. In case someone is wondering what the quote is, it is in this post:
You said,
DOC said:
Actually Luke (the physician), who many say was a first rate historian

I simply asked if Thomas Arnold was one of those historians. In fact, I don't currently have information on any reputable source who claims Paul was a first rate historian.

Finally, considering you could not refute my argument, it seems that you agree that Thomas Arnold is a unreliable source for facts related to jesus.
 
Who said his family still had to live there, people and families do move from where they were born. And even if they did, he might not know where they lived, or he could have arrived late at night.

Well you sort of did when you suggested that the reason for returning to home villages was that they could put pressure on the families. As I said, I am not aware that the Romans made people return to their native areas for a census anywhere else in the Empire - unless it was something peculiar to the Jewish state that was requested by the Jewish authorities.

I saw an interesting history programme a while back where some Jewish archaeologists discussed a find in Galilee of a village they believe was also called Bethlehem. Is it possible that Joseph went to this village which might reasonably have been set up as a census registration point for his area? Just a thought.

While it may be the case that Luke is a reasonably careful recorder of facts, might the error not be Matthew's rather than Luke. Is it not conceiveable that Matthew is wrong and the stuff about Herod was merely apocryphal? The slaughter of the innocents for example is often presented as a major massacre whereas the number of male babies in a small village like Bethlehem would have been tiny.
 
But he has to concede to recorded history right? I mean I presented all kinds of historical facts. I hope he actually read them though they were long.

I presented ACTUAL facts showing:

Joseph would not have taken place in the Census as he was from Galilee which was separate from Iudaea and Syria where the only Census during the governorship of Quirinius took place.

Herod died 10 years before Quirinius became governor of Syria and thus would not have even heard of Jesus' birth never mind tried to have him killed.

Judas couldn't possibly have been paid in 'peices of silver' as the Seleucid coinage was in use for 141 years and 'weighed peices' hadn't been used in the region for almost 300.

There are two conflicting accounts of the end of Juda. One which completely refutes any supposed prophecy (Giving back the 30 pieces of silver in one, buying a field with it in another)

Surely this should be considered? I haven't been given any info refuting it.
Since you're new here, I'll give you the benefit of the doubt and assume that this post was written tongue in cheek, for in all of DOC's 1100+ posts, he's never conceded any point, ever. Even when he's been so throughly pwned that his great-grandchildren will still be pwned when they start posting. His insatiable dishonesty has been fully described elsewhere, so I'll leave that to the interested parties to look up. Joobz, US, cleon, myself and others have done enough to show how little DOC cares for the truth and I just cannot be bothered anymore. He's only worthy of ridicule and insult.
 

I'll have to get that for you. The book is used in seminaries as a historical guide to the Bible, but I can't recall the author.

So according to you Isaac Newton wasted a lot of time and energy analyzing and believing Daniels prophecies because he couldn't figure out they were only a moral tale.

Well...yes! But it was his time to waste. After he was 25 or so, he had already contributed most of what he was going to contribute to the world, so we can forgive him his indulgences.

And...how would he "figure out" that it was only a moral tale? He was not a historian.

And are you saying a story that was a moral tale proclaimed that Israel's long-awaited Messiah would begin his public ministry 483 years after the issuing of a decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem (Daniel 9:25-26), and it would be accurate by coincidence.

According to tradition, Jesus began his ministry about 30-something AD. This was about 200 years after (from all historical accounts) the book of Daniel was written. Nice, round number. Of course, they had to back-date it to match the setting of the story.

The author of Daniel was telling people to be patient, for, although they wouldn't see the Messiah, their descendents would in 200 years. Why such a long time? Probably because it was a short enough time to give people hope, and a long enough time to convince them that they needed to keep preserving their ways for posterity.

The Jews were under pressure from the Greeks to adopt pagan gods at this time. It was important for Jewish leaders to maintain their traditions and cultures, as they had in captivity in Babylon. It makes sense, then, that they would refer back to that time in history to illustrate why they had to continue instructing their children in the ways of the Talmud.

The Greeks gave way to the Romans, and the Jews continued to hope for a Messiah to cast out the foreigners. Thus, the appearance of a Messiah (who, let us remember, is NOT RECOGNIZED AS A MESSIAH BY JEWS, THEN OR NOW) would be a self-fulfilling prophecy.
 
I'm not sure what all the above means

Just a little reductio ad absurdum, trying to disguise itself as humor. Disregard if you like.

but actually it would be of great advantage to the Romans to have everyone return to the city of their lineage for tax purposes.

It would be a better advantage to have people return, if necessary, to the place where they owned property.

If the person did not pay the tax the Romans would have justification to take the tax from family members who they now know.

Think how much easier it would be to simply seize the person's property, if they registered in the town where they owned property rather than the town where they had (EXTREMELY) distant relatives.

If the Romans knew who all you family members were you would be less likely to cause trouble because now they could kill all your family as well as you if caused any trouble.

Most of these family members would be perfect strangers to Joseph, even if their lineage could be determined with accuracy. We're talking NINE HUNDRED YEARS removed from King David. Half the people in Judeah could have been his descendants, particulary when you consider how many concubines he and his son Solomon had!

Just postulating a little like you were.

Nothing wrong with that. Just remember that any postulates (particularly controversial ones) displayed in this forum are likely to be scrutinized.
 

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