Yes, that is precisely what I said. But your definition did not cover this off. Your definition allowed for the possibility of randomness to be the reason for the difference.
Excuse me? My definition was as follows:
Free will is the situation whereupon if one made a decision, then was presented with the same choice a second time, and
all material factors that played a part in the first decision were completely identical as before, they could make a different decision.
Bolded is the important part. Randomness plays no part in the scenario, because
all phyiscal factors are identical both times.
Why? As long as the process of decision making is not random why does it matter if the basis is random. The decision to fold on a bad hand is not random.
False dichotomy. In the situation given, where a decision is based upon the decay of a radioactive particle, this is
solely based on an external, random, event. An external, random, even
cannot possible allow free will, as the nature of the event is not possibly affected by any individual.
Did I have to include this in my definition? It seemed perfectly obvious to me.
Does it? This is exactly why I am asking the question, because your previous definition did not mention "external to physical influences".
Yes, it does. Please consider my definition again.
Free will is the situation whereupon if one made a decision, then was presented with the same choice a second time, and
all material factors that played a part in the first decision were completely identical as before, they could make a different decision.
This means that the
only thing which is different is the hypothetical "internal, non-material, self". If all external factors are identical, any decision based upon external factors will obviously be the same both times.
You can't say that free will is impossible just because your definition of it is incoherent. You have to show why that definition is reasonable.
Nonsense. You asked for my opinion on whether free will exists, and the definition I use to reach that opinion. I provided both. Just because you disagree with my definition does not make my argument incorrect.
A decision based solely on a external element is, in any case, logically impossible so that is not an important consideration.
Also nonsense. We are talking about hypotheticals. Consider the case of a robot which presses button one if a radioactive particle decays, and presses button two if the partical does not decay, at a given time period. The robot could not have free will, per my definition, because the decision is
solely based upon an external, random, even, over which that robot has no control.