But clearly axiom 1 does not refer to the macro behavior of complex organisms as measured by some arbitrary consistency criteria of other organisms.
Does it? That's not at all "clear" to me. If that's really the case, then someone needs to formalize axiom 1 so that it says exactly to what it refers and does not refer, "clearly."
How does this supernatural world operate, if not by logical laws?
By the whims of a capricious supernatural being who is not confined by laws.
If the supernatural world can somehow have an affect on the natural world, then there is no explanation that would not involve the supernatural, unless some portion of the natural world is completely partitioned from the rest. All explanations would be supernatural, thus illogical, thus there would be no natural world at all.
Not at all. As an analogy, consider a pool table somewhere in Japan. We can produce logical, rule-based descriptions of the behavior of the ball on the table -- "if I hit this ball in such-and-such a way, it will move thusly, and strike the object ball as follows:" We can even assume (since this is only an analogy, after all), a degree of precision that would astonish a watchmaker -- the balls are perfectly spherical (or we know their imperfections to the Nth degree), the table is frictionless, and so forth.
Within the universe of this pool table, the behavior of the balls is perfectly "natural" in the sense defined by Stiimpy -- as long as there is no earthquake. Unfortunately, Japan is earthquake-prone, and whenever there is an earthquake, all bets (and rules) are off.
The motion of the balls during a period of geological stability is "natural." The movement of balls during an earthquake is "unnatural" or "supernatural," in this analogy.
As long as our capricious deity does not interfere with the normal rule-based workings of the universe, our natural rules work. Just because a supernatural entity can have an effect on the world doesn't mean that it must in all cases.
~~ Paul[/QUOTE]