I am an American, by the way.
But thanks for the citation. I did not know that was a legal requirement. It does appear that he was required to at least notify the Gang of Eight[1] and did not do so.
[1] Assuming that this counts as a covert action, which I don't know. I don't know the relevant definition for this term.
ETA: The definition of covert action is found
here. I reproduce it here:
(e) “Covert action” definedAs used in this subchapter, the term “covert action” means an activity or activities of the United States Government to influence political, economic, or military conditions abroad,
where it is intended that the role of the United States Government will not be apparent or acknowledged publicly, but does not include—
(1) activities the primary purpose of which is to acquire intelligence, traditional counterintelligence activities, traditional activities to improve or maintain the operational security of United States Government programs, or administrative activities;
(2) traditional diplomatic or military activities or routine support to such activities;
(3) traditional law enforcement activities conducted by United States Government law enforcement agencies or routine support to such activities; or
(4) activities to provide routine support to the overt activities (other than activities described in paragraph (1), (2), or (3)) of other United States Government agencies abroad.
Seems to me that this wasn't a covert action, since the role of the US was immediately acknowledged publicly.
Surely, if this was a violation of the law, it would be discussed in the press, no? Anyone actually claiming that this was a covert action and hence required notifying the Gang of Eight?
