I can understand the arguments for declaring war in 1938 and that weak little Germany might have had a hard time defending itself then.
Apart from the appeal to ridicule fallacy, I'll be charitable and assume you hadn't read my post in the other thread when you wrote this. Hitler's own generals in command on the Western Front told him that they couldn't even hold off the French for three weeks. Were they wrong?
The problem is you need to have a wide and practical experience about all this . . .
As
Garrison said, you have repeatedly demonstrated that you lack such experience.
. . . and that includes the state of the economy . . .
As has been repeatedly explained to you, and you have repeatedly ignored, Germany's economy was weak in 1938; the fact that Hitler was able to loot Czechoslovakia practically
* without firing a shot was instrumental in propping it up.
. . . and public opinion . . .
Which was heavily in favor of taking military measures, if necessary, to stop one country from attacking another, as
erwinl pointed out, and I correctly predicted you would ignore.
. . . and even if the military felt they were capable of going to war in 1938.
The IGS never said they weren't capable of going to war. As I said, they stated, incorrectly, that a delay of 6-12 months would be advantageous. Although they were correct that the air-defense system would be stronger after that time, they also admitted that the Heer would be considerably strengthened by the looting of Czechoslovakia. And, as has been mentioned, there is some evidence that they were only telling Chamberlain what he wanted to hear.
To my mind being at war then would have involved attacking Germany, and neither the Czechs or French or British were in any military state to attack Germany then.
How was France not in "any military state to attack Germany" in 1938? As I've mentioned, the German generals commanding on the Western Front stated that they couldn't even hold out for three weeks.
Further, were France, Britain, and Poland "in any military state to attack Germany" in 1939?
Soviet Russia didn't want to.
Your opinion, with no real evidence provided, as usual. But the real question is whether they
could have attacked Germany. That aside, even their not providing raw materials to Germany would have been helpful to the Allies.
Chamberlain, or Churchill, would also have been blamed now for starting the war.
No. And, as has been explained to you repeatedly, Churchill has nothing to do with the matter, as he was a backbencher in 1938. You're just throwing him in as an excuse for another anonymous attack by proxy.
There is a bit about Churchill's strategic genius and political genius at this website:
https://www.quora.com/Was-Winston-Churchill-considered-a-good-military-strategist
I decline to be drawn into an irrelevant debate by proxy about Churchill's military strategy.
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*I've added the qualifier, as I've learned that there were actually a relatively small number of shots fired.