Continuing evasion noted, as usual.
I remember reading a book once about the artist Dora Carrington which said her arty group were conscientious objectors in the First World War, but in the second world war they all joined up to fight.
[citation needed] Further, all of the surviving male members of the Bloomsbury Group
WP were too old for military service in 1939. Fail.
There is an internet article on that Oxford Union debate about not fighting for King and Country in 1933, which indicates the sort of thing Chamberlain was up against trying to persuade the public and the British Empire to go to war. The public and the House of Commons did not want to go to war over the Sudetanland, mainly because they had never heard of it. They had to work it out for themselves:
https://www.chu.cam.ac.uk/archives/...ra/exercises/appeasement/king-country-debate/
To add to
erwinl's point about the Peace Ballot, which I imagine you'll ignore, if Chamberlain believed that Britain and the Empire and Commonwealth wouldn't go to war over the Sudetenland, yet, as you have claimed, he also knew that war with Hitler was inevitable, then why was there any need for appeasement at all? Why not just let Czechoslovakia fight Germany, possibly with Soviet backing? As has been pointed out to you several times, such a war would have resulted in the expenditure or destruction of large amounts of both German and Czech war materiel, which would have made Germany significantly weaker when the conflict with the Western Allies did come.
Finally, you are attempting to change horses yet again. First, you claimed that Chamberlain was right to appease Hitler at Munich because, had war come in 1938, Germany would have easily defeated not only France and the Low Countries, but also Britain, and that the extra year of British rearmament somehow made all the difference.
After this line of argument was utterly destroyed, you then half-heartedly shifted to claiming that Chamberlain
believed, based on faulty intelligence, that this would happen, and thus made the best decision he could in the circumstances. As has been pointed out to you, this claim is still wrong, however, it's at least defensible to an extent. But, frankly, you didn't do a very good job of making the case.
So now you're claiming that Chamberlain had to appease Hitler because Britain and the Empire and Commonwealth wouldn't have gone to war over the Sudetenland. This is also wrong, as has been demonstrated, but it's also nonsensical, because, as I mentioned, you have previously claimed that Chamberlain knew that armed conflict with Germany would come eventually. Appeasement only makes sense if he truly believed that he was achieving "peace in our time."