.........I don't quite get that reasoning, so can you spell it out more for me?
In a seat in which a Tory was in a fight for victory with a Lib Dem (typically in the SW of England), a vote for Ukip would almost certainly have come from someone who previously voted Tory. This reduces the Tory vote enough to allow the Lib Dems to win a tight race.
May out-thatchers Thatcher and has swung the Tories further to the right, gobbling up the UKIP with lots of pro-Brexit rhetoric. I'd thunk that leaves a gap on the Tory left flank which the LibDems then could profit from. What am I seeing wrong?
The subject of this thread. This is a question for the other thread. Your error is in your first dozen words, which are flat out wrong.