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Worst Rape Apologist Editorial Ever

Burglar alarms are an obvious deterrent to burglary. If you could show how wearing sexy clothing is a similar deterrent to rape, then your analogy would be valid.

Fine. If you could show how wearing sexy clothing demonstrates vulnerability to a rapist, so might yours. In fact, though, there are several reasons why it wouldn't; for example, a rapist who wants to exert power and control over women (basically, then, a rapist) is more likely to choose one who obviously doesn't want sex than one who apparently does.

I'd love to go (back) to the data. What data?

The data linked by Ocelot in post #32.

http://answers.google.com/answers/threadview/id/776945.html

Dave
 
No, it's just basic burden of proof. If you're the one claiming that a correlation exists, you're the one who gets to support it. As long as no such correlation has been shown, really, the default position is that there isn't.

The default position is that we don't know. The claim that "a proposition is true because it has not been proven false (or vice versa)" is classic argumentum ad ignorantiam.

I am not claiming as a fact that the correlation exists. I am expressing it as an opinion, based on my understanding of human nature, but I'm not suggesting I can prove it, any more than you can prove the contrary.
 
Fine. If you could show how wearing sexy clothing demonstrates vulnerability to a rapist, so might yours. In fact, though, there are several reasons why it wouldn't; for example, a rapist who wants to exert power and control over women (basically, then, a rapist) is more likely to choose one who obviously doesn't want sex than one who apparently does.

I'm not saying that sexy clothing necessarily makes a woman more vulnerable, any more than a burglar alarm that can be defeated makes that house any more vulnerable than a house without a burglar alarm.


Please see my reply, #134.
 
Not exactly. I'm assuming that women dressing attractively are displaying features that attract the attention of rapists, for whatever reason. I suppose a woman wearing a burkha might attract the attention of an Islamophobe, who might then proceed to rape her out of anger against her religion. I'll grant you that in our culture women usually attract attention by displaying or enhancing feminine physical attributes, so maybe I'm splitting hairs.

But you're assuming to know what someone is looking for, because "attention" is not something absolute. E.g., if I'm looking for a parking place, then a free spot will attract attention, while if I'm looking for the nearest ramp to the highway, a free parking spot won't even register.

You don't really know what a rapist is looking for, or what attracts his attention, or what makes him actually act upon that attention. It can be someone just looking vulnerable enough, or really anything.

Plus, there is no indication that it even works on that kind of an attention basis. The vast majority of rapes are not committed upon whoever attracted most attention in the bus, but upon someone the rapist knew for a while. All that changed was getting a good opportunity to do it, or basically some feeling that there's some injustice to repay. (Even if it's just not putting out.)

At the point where you're at someone's house or let them escort you at night, it's

A) way past the point of whether you attract their attention or not, since he'll know full well that you're there, and

B) you're not really competing with anyone else for who gets more attention. It's not like he'll leave in a huff to rape another girl across the street because she's showing more leg.

It's a one on one setting. There are no extra persons there that you could attract less attention than.

Even most cases where someone was raped by some stranger in the bushes, don't happen when the perp has a whole bus worth of women to choose from. It's not the kind of thing that happens in the middle of a crowd. (In fact, traveling in crowds is one of the things that does work as a deterrent.) They invariably happen in isolated, poorly lit, and less frequented places where really there was nobody else within line of sight at all. The common factor is really that someone was alone and vulnerable.

And I'm not sure how the attention factor is going to work even there. Attract less attention than... what, when you're the only one on some empty street? Than the lamp post? Are there all that many extra signals needed to get someone aware that you're there, when you're the only other person than them in sight? Or how would that attention factor work?

But, generally, if there was such a factor, you'd expect someone to notice it. And quoth Snopes, "If rapists choose their victims based on hairstyle and length of tresses, it's news to those in law enforcement; they've never noticed this trend. Rape victims have short hair, long hair, and no hair. They're also young and old, short and tall, fat and skinny, femininely dressed or looking like they just fell off the tractor, and all points in between."

And here once again we see the logical fallacy I'm trying to find a name for.

If you believe that a fallacy has been committed, then please say which one, so we can have a laugh. Just some vague claim that it's some fallacy you can't name is pretty silly by now. Either you know what fallacy it is and why it's fitting that, or basically, it's fully irrelevant.

Rapists undoubtedly are attracted by the vulnerability of a potential victim, but that doesn't mean that her attractiveness in other ways might not also play a role. Things have multiple causes.

But if you think that something is a cause, you should support it. I mean, equally the alignment of the ley lines or of the stars could be a cause, but basic burden of proof and Occam's Razor say to not just assume extra entities unless they're actually needed to explain the available data. Just the possibility that there may be extra causes -- and yes, there might be hundreds of extra factors and causes -- is no reason to just assume that X, Y and Z actually are causes or factors.
 
The default position is that we don't know. The claim that "a proposition is true because it has not been proven false (or vice versa)" is classic argumentum ad ignorantiam.

I am not claiming as a fact that the correlation exists. I am expressing it as an opinion, based on my understanding of human nature, but I'm not suggesting I can prove it, any more than you can prove the contrary.

I've mentioned Russel's Teapot before for a reason. And also Occam's Razor. While there is the "we don't know" factor, nevertheless, unless either is supportable, the default assumption is the one with the least entities. You don't assume that there is a teapot in orbit based on lacking any data about its existence, you assume that it doesn't.

Sure, you can't postulate that such an orbiting teapot absolutely can't exist, either. But the default assumption is that, until shown otherwise, it doesn't. And that's the direction of the burden of proof. If someone wants to base anything on the existence of that teapot, they have the burden of proof to show that it does exist. Someone wanting to go by the assumption that there isn't, doesn't have any burden of proof. Absence of any reason to take the teapot as real, is reason enough to just go with the baseline assumption that it doesn't.

Plus, even "we don't know" works both ways. If you don't know, you don't know. You cannot give advice based on a correlation that you don't know whether it even exists.

But, generally, again, if you want to invoke fallacies, learn some basic logic first.
 
What studies? Really, I'd like to see them.

Wikipedia has a good summary of the work that has been done (which coincides heavily with what Hans was arguing). You can check the references at the bottom.

I should note that this page covers a wide range of topics, some of them even quite radical. I'm not saying they're all true. I am, however, saying that any mention of clothing is suspiciously absent. It's almost as if it's not a very big factor.

Interestingly, my search led me to the CDC page on sexual violence. They have several articles there about the prevention of sexual assault (and ultimately, that is what we're talking about, right?). You can view this paper (pdf) which attempts to analyze the factors involved in what makes one a rapist, or makes one a victim. Notably, there's this section:
Factors increasing women’s vulnerability
One of the most common forms of sexual violence
around the world is that which is perpetrated by an
intimate partner, leading to the conclusion that one
of the most important risk factors for women – in
terms of their vulnerability to sexual assault – is being
married or cohabiting with a partner. Other factors
influencing the risk of sexual violence include:
— being young;
— consuming alcohol or drugs;
— having previously been raped or sexually
abused;
— having many sexual partners;
— involvement in sex work;
— becoming more educated and economically
empowered, at least where sexual violence
perpetrated by an intimate partner is concerned;
— poverty.
For more info, you can view the file. It's page 157 (page 11 in the pdf).

Again, no mention of clothing. I think it's quite safe to say that clothing is not an issue.
 
You don't really know what a rapist is looking for, or what attracts his attention, or what makes him actually act upon that attention. It can be someone just looking vulnerable enough, or really anything.

That's true. I have a general idea about what what men find attractive or sexy, and I'm assuming that rapists are similar. But maybe not.

Plus, there is no indication that it even works on that kind of an attention basis. The vast majority of rapes are not committed upon whoever attracted most attention in the bus, but upon someone the rapist knew for a while.

Exactly, so what the woman is wearing at the moment of the rape might have very little to do with it. I suppose that the rapist was attracted to her for the same reasons as most men. If she habitually wears attractive and/or sexy clothing, that would probably be a factor.

If you believe that a fallacy has been committed, then please say which one, so we can have a laugh. Just some vague claim that it's some fallacy you can't name is pretty silly by now. Either you know what fallacy it is and why it's fitting that, or basically, it's fully irrelevant.

It's obviously fallacious. I don't need a formal name to know that. However, in my experience in Internet discussions I have noticed that it comes up fairly commonly, so if it doesn't have a name it should. If anyone knows of one I'd be interested to hear it. Which is why I'm asking.

But if you think that something is a cause, you should support it. I mean, equally the alignment of the ley lines or of the stars could be a cause, but basic burden of proof and Occam's Razor say to not just assume extra entities unless they're actually needed to explain the available data. Just the possibility that there may be extra causes -- and yes, there might be hundreds of extra factors and causes -- is no reason to just assume that X, Y and Z actually are causes or factors.

I think that sexy clothing is a contributing cause in at least some cases, based solely on my personal acquaintance with the male psyche and human behaviour, but I'm not claiming I can prove it. My only purpose in joining this discussion was to point out that you can't disprove it merely by pointing out that there are many other contributing causes of rape.
 
It's obviously fallacious. I don't need a formal name to know that. However, in my experience in Internet discussions I have noticed that it comes up fairly commonly, so if it doesn't have a name it should. If anyone knows of one I'd be interested to hear it. Which is why I'm asking.

There is no such thing as obviously fallacious, but you don't know why. Something is a fallacy if it's an invalid inference mode. Even if you don't know the name, you should be able to show exactly what invalid inference is being committed.

I think that sexy clothing is a contributing cause in at least some cases, based solely on my personal acquaintance with the male psyche and human behaviour, but I'm not claiming I can prove it. My only purpose in joining this discussion was to point out that you can't disprove it merely by pointing out that there are many other contributing causes of rape.

Well, point taken and also as fully irrelevant as when fundies rant about how you can't disprove God. I mean, you also can't thoroughly disprove Santa or the Easter Bunny or ghosts or dowsing or astrology either. Most of us already know that.

But there is also no reason to take the mere possibility of something as worth jack squat, unless it can actually be supported in a sound way. Unless you can show that there actually is a correlation between something and rape, then it's fully irrelevant what could possibly be, or what armchair-shrink gig one can pull in its "support".

Yes, there could be a correlation between clothing and rape. There could even be a correlation between hair length and rape. There could be a correlation between what car brand one drives and rape. There could be a correlation between grades in primary school and rape later. Or really, whatever. We all already know that.

But if there is no statistical indication that such a correlation actually exists, the possibility doesn't mean jack squat.
 
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I think that you'll find that 99% of rape is about power, stranger and non-stranger...

Haven't read the whole thread, so my point may already have been made. But the idea that "rape is about power" has always seemed to me suspiciously like politically correct feminist claptrap.

In most cases, especially in the cases of lone miscreant rapists, I suspect it is primarily motivated by sexual impulses.

And, if I'm not mistaken, the idea that rape is about power (not sex), has pretty much been discarded by the mainstream.
 
That's true. I have a general idea about what what men find attractive or sexy, and I'm assuming that rapists are similar.

It's fascinating that you insist that rapist rape those they are attracted to when stories of elderly women and the mentally disabled being raped are not so rare.

I just don't see the correlation between sexual attraction and violent sexual attacks. Maybe I'm missing something, but can you provide some evidence of a correlation, besides your opinion?
 
In most cases, especially in the cases of lone miscreant rapists, I suspect it is primarily motivated by sexual impulses.

Lie the case the article was about where the filmmaker was raped?

And, if I'm not mistaken, the idea that rape is about power (not sex), has pretty much been discarded by the mainstream.

Not to be pedantic, but can you provide some citations from "the mainstream."
 
Yeah, I thought of that, but false dichotomy is usually of the form "It's either A or B, and we know it's not A so it must be B." In this case we're saying that we know it is A, therefore it can't be B. Also, "dichotomy" implies a choice between exactly two alternatives (which is why if it's not A it must be B), whereas the fallacious reasoning here applies even if you acknowledge there are multiple choices (we know it's A, therefore it can't be B or C or D).

Ah missed it, thanks.

The logic in the fallacy is identical either way.

A=~~A, B=~~B so letting A'=~A and B'=~B then

The first form

AvB
~A
=> B

Is equivalent to the second form

~A'v~B'
A'
=> ~B'

The wikipedia article on False dilemmaWP has both forms as examples, (at the end of 1st paragraph and of the second).

As to multiple options, fair enough, the logic's the same, the definition's just over-specified.
 
Lie the case the article was about where the filmmaker was raped?...

Sorry, I don't understand your question.



...Not to be pedantic, but can you provide some citations from "the mainstream."

Well, I've found these in the same way you could have. I'm sure there are others, if you're so inclined. But these might get your started:

http://www.psychologytoday.com/blog/the-human-beast/201104/is-rape-about-control-or-sex

http://www.law.northwestern.edu/jclc/backissues/v101/n1/1011_171.Bryden_&_Grier.pdf

This Grier paper is over a 100 pages. But let me quote from the conclusion:

"...the weight of the evidence indicates that sexual gratification is rapists' most common (if not universal) goal..."
 
I'm not sure if you've read even the first link. Because it seems to say that Don Symons doesn't seem to really apply, when you look at it, and mostly reflects a bias in how easy it is to get a conviction.

Moreover, even for Symons, the problem is that it has only one of those "common sense" -- i.e., just handwaved -- connections between being poor and the motive being sex. Again, the majority of rapes are commited by intimate partners, and most rapists aren't particularly sex deprived anyway, so the whole idea that they rape because otherwise they'd get no sex partners is pretty hard to support. We know that for a majority of rapists it doesn't apply.

Furthermore, someone poorer raping someone more successful doesn't have needing sex as the only explanation in any case. E.g., power rape is also just as good an explanation, especially when it's committed by a husband or boyfriend who was otherwise getting sex anyway. And it doesn't even take much guessing that it happens, because all else being equal, the woman being more educated or successful is known to increase the risk of being raped. E.g., see that CDC page for a reference.

So we're dealing with something that really, can and is often known to be basically just a case of some idiot wanting to show the woman who's boss.

As for the Bryden & Grier .pdf, well, doesn't seem to help much for the topic of the thread actually. And yes, I actually spent almost two hours carefully reading it, and now I want my time back :p

For a start I see no actual evidence there at all, to warrant putting any claims about "the weight of the evidence" in the conclusion. They mention a lot of contradicting opinions, and actually some which aren't as contradicting as they seem, but there doesn't seem to be much more given there than personal veracity considerations for why someone mentioning that some sexual motive may be included too is obviously hitting the nail on the head, and why someone who studied 3000 cases is wrong when they don't see that as playing much role.

It's good and fine to poke possible holes in claimed correlations, but I really don't see them doing that great a job of it either. At best the claims are addressed as a superficial aggregate thing, where it may sound superficially reasonable to question the conclusion, but it's not clear at all how that applies to the individual cases or actual data distribution, or cherry-picking some individual paragraph and saying, basically, "yeah, but he could have some sexual motive too."

At best, it's a good list of which books to read on the topic, but hardly seems to nail any answer either way.

Moreover, most of the objections aren't as relevant as they sound. Most of the time it boils down to just saying that, yeah, but someone could also want sex. E.g., at one point they don't deny that a husband raping his wife may be motivated by teaching her a lesson, but they think that the lesson may also be teaching her to provide sex whenver the husband wants it.

Well, that's not a bad observation, but it hardly says much, if you think about it. Obviously people do also want sex, but it's hardly answering the question why they choose to get it in an illegal manner when even they admit that:

A) most American rapists not only aren't sex starved, but actually have very active sex lives. (Which by itself is already contradicting Symons's ideas quoted in the other link.) Yet,

B) there doesn't seem to be a hormonal cause like elevated testosterone levels or anything. They have the same levels as you'd expect of a random sample of the general population.

I.e., there doesn't actually seem to be more of a physiological drive than among the people who can jolly well control their dick, and the rapists vent their hormones more often than other people anyway. In effect the rapes are committed by those who would have the least reason to resort to that as a way to satisfy their sex drive.

So, you know... why, then?

The claim that it's not about sex doesn't say that rapists have no sex drive, or anything. It's pretty much assumed that, yes, they'd like to get sex too, just as much as the rest of the population. The question is what motivates them to take that route when actually they're the least in need of it.

If you want an analogy, consider another need that's actually at a lower level in the pyramid: hunger. You can believe that someone shoplifting a box of chocolates was motivated by hunger if they're in fact starving and couldn't afford food. But if someone has plenty of options, ranging between going home to get a meal, to going to a restaurant, to just buying those chocolates, it's hard to present hunger as their motivation for shoplifting. Sure, nobody says that they don't get hungry like anyone else too, nor that they weren't going to eat those chocolates, but we don't ascribe the act to hunger because really they didn't need to break the law to satisfy that need. There must be some other motivation to take the forbidden route when a legit route to satisfy the same need is just as available.

Similarly, nobody says that rapists don't have a sex drive, nor that they necessarily weren't going to get sexual satisfaction out of it. When talking about motivation, it's like in the shoplifting analogy: most of them are the least denied other routes to satisfy the same drive. If the motive were sex, why not take the easier and less risky of available ways to satisfy it?

In effect, what I'm saying is that Bryden and Grier mis-understand and/or mis-represent the argument they're arguing against. Nobody argued for a version where the sex need isn't present at all, so their arguing that basically one could also be wanting sex is really not adding much.

But most of their argument doesn't really help the kind of thing we're talking about in this thread. E.g., they too acknowledge that rapists seek vulnerable victims (as opposed, I guess, to the whole "she attracted attention" argument, which they don't make) or are often motivated by hostility to women. Even if we grant that some sexual component is actually present too, it still doesn't help the case of idiots like Dan Rottenberg much.

It also doesn't change much the fact that including Lara Logan in that BS piece is not falling even into that. There is no indication that the attack was motivated by sex to any degree worth mentioning, nor that sticking fingers in her or dragging her by the hair was actually doing anything to satisfy those guys' libido. Whatever exceptions or nuances of sexual motivation may be argued for other cases, that was as clear cut a case as it gets of a simple anger rape without any sex desire component. Some idiot Arabs were pretty clearly trying to dish some painful and humiliating punishment on someone they thought was an Israeli Jew, not getting turned on by the prospect of sex with a Jew.

But to return to Bryden & Grier, even then, some of their objections seem to be fairly weird in their irrelevance. They just seem to argue for example on page 189, after conceding hate or power as at least factors, is that there is no organized system of enforcing the patriarchy by rape. E.g., that perps don't travel to another city to rape a feminist, nor seek to punish women who spurned other men. Well, that's a strange argument, because I don't think anyone actually preached that kind of a rapist-conspiracy theory.

Acts of violence against a group can still be motivated by keeping that group in line or showing them who's boss, even if there is no organized and "fair" system of dishing that violence to whoever is acting the most above his/her station. I mean, skinheads also typically don't travel to beat the most unruly blacks or jews in other cities either, but still nobody would take that as a sign that they're not motivated by showing their victims who's boss. Lashing randomly against whoever is an easy target just happens.

Again, to link it to this thread, the fact that those guys lashed at Lara Logan for thinking she's an easily accessible Israeli Jew instead of travelling to another town to find an actual Israeli Jew, doesn't change the fact that that's what their real motivation was.

About the only really useful objection comes on page 239, where they even manage to introduce a fourth motive mentioned in another study, namely peer pressure. I.e., basically rape as a status symbol. Some people think that they're expected to get more sex or more partners, and rape basically because of that. And that power games are basically a way to get that coveted achievement for number of sexual conquests, rather than just for power sake.

While this does sorta contradict Groth's making power a purpose in itself, I'm not sure it makes all that much of a difference in the end. It still makes a power rape a power rape, it just says there may be some status motive behind it, rather than power being the ultimate goal. But ultimately it's still about achieving something else than just sex.

And even then, be it as it may, for the purpose of this thread, even there there seems to be no such motive as the victim showing too much skin or attracting too much attention. There may be a motivation to use more pretty women than ugly ones as basically points in some social status game, but really, there is nothing to indicate that a woman in a "slutty" dress is worth more points than one in a long evening dress.

Finally, in both cases I have trouble taking anyone seriously who bases anything on "evolutionary psychology" BS. Evidence and data are that-a-way, and evo-psych is just sitting and postulating stuff about caveman motives without having any. And in fact often against even evidence of present-day behaviours in primitive tribes or other cultures, that could readily be provided by anthropologists and sociologists.

Quoting some unsupported and unsupportable evo-psych postulates as an equally valid point to contrapose to actual study, strikes me as the kind of giving everyone an equal voice that rubs me the wrong way when the press does it. No, all opinions are not created equal. For example, between a doctor who studied actual nutrition and bases his/her stuff on real studies, and a quack just postulating that we evolved for natural stuff, there is no room for delusions of it being all equal and valuable. Similarly between a psychologist who actually studied 3000 rapists and their cases, and someone just postulating how it would make sense to them that rape fits into human evolution, they're not equal in any form or shape. Quoting the latter as a counter-point to the former is just frakking stupid.
 
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It's fascinating that you insist that rapist rape those they are attracted to when stories of elderly women and the mentally disabled being raped are not so rare.

There will always be exceptions, but according to lane99's Psychology Today link, "victims, as a class, were most likely to be young physically attractive women (as opposed to older, more successful career women)." By the way, what makes you think that mentally disabled people can't be physically attractive?

I just don't see the correlation between sexual attraction and violent sexual attacks. Maybe I'm missing something, but can you provide some evidence of a correlation, besides your opinion?

Nope, I don't have evidence and not especially interested in looking for evidence. If you don't want to believe it yourself that's up to you. All I'm saying (for the umpteenth time) is that evidence for alternative causes does not disprove the commonly held belief that clothing choice can be a contributory cause.
 
I have a general idea about what what men find attractive or sexy, and I'm assuming that rapists are similar.

Exactly, so what the woman is wearing at the moment of the rape might have very little to do with it. I suppose that the rapist was attracted to her for the same reasons as most men. If she habitually wears attractive and/or sexy clothing, that would probably be a factor.

You're asking everyone else to offer proof for their claims, so how about you offer some proof for these? Especially the last one, because it seems that, if you can't blame a woman for what she's wearing at the time she's raped, you're going to assume she must have done something wrong in the past to make it partly her fault. That, quite simply, is blaming the victim without justification, and it's exactly the same thing as is most offensive about the article that sparked this off.

Dave
 
That relies on the additional premise that rapists' attention is focused by the same features as other people's attention; that said, I'll accept that. To go any further, you have to ask whether attracting a rapist's attention by dressing attractively makes it more likely to be selected as a victim. It appears that that isn't the case, from the statistics, and there is evidence that dressing more conservatively may make selection more likely.

In any case, if my response is a strawman, then the actual claim is irrelevant to the argument of what makes a person more likely to be chosen as a rape victim.

Again you are falling into the same trap, the argument isn't that most rapist's select their victims by what they wear, but rather, some women who are attacked have attracted the rapist by what they were wearing. These are different arguments and while you are countering the first, you are ignoring the second, which is actually the argument being made. In the end, this does mean that there is more chance of being selected by a rapist, since if you dress in a way that gets the 4% as well as displaying signs the other 96% are looking for, your chances are increased because the potential pool of attackers is increased, not by a lot, but by a little.

Look at it this way. If there is a 50% chance of getting wet because it rains, and a 4% chance of getting wet because a wave hits you, then overall you have a 54% chance of getting wet by walking along the beach as opposed to the 50% chance when not doing so.

As such, women need to be aware that, however small that increase is, there is a slightly higher risk they could be attacked when dressing for attraction. The way to counter this is to show that more potential rapists in fact reject a woman as a target because she dresses attractively than would pick a target because she dressed attactively.

All of this still doesn't negate the fact that the best way to avoid rape is to keep your wits about you and know and watch for the signs and get the heck out of Dodge when you start seeing them. This also doesn't mean that women shouldn't dress attactively, that they should be blamed, or even that they should expect to be raped for doing so, it is just noting that when you partake in higher risk behaviour, you need to be aware and more alert then when not doing that behaviour because you have an increased risk of attracting a jerk who doesn't care what you want, just what he wants.

It also rather suggests that it would be more productive to address the remaining 96% of cases. Then there's the already stated point that these women attracted the rapist's attention by dressing more attractively than average, a situation which it is a logical impossibility to change. And finally, of course, either this 4% comes from the statements of rapists - in which case it's automatically somewhat suspect as a post hoc attempt at self-justification - or it comes from some other source, in which case it's not particularly relevant.

I think it is far more productive to teach women to not only know the signs and understand what high risk behaviours are, but why not to ignore those things, and how to react appropriately when you see them. The key to rape prevention is being aware of when you are putting yourself at risk, understanding that risk, knowing the signs that things are going wrong, and acting on them when they do. The last bit is the hardest part. A lot of women will rationalize the signs they are seeing and don't try to react until they see the attack coming, and by then it's too late.

No, they were raped because an extremely evil person chose to rape them and then claimed after the fact that their clothing was a factor in his choice of victim.

You need to understand the difference between noting that a person is partaking in a high risk behaviour so that they know they need to be more aware of danger, and blaming them for it when that behaviour goes bad. As an analogy. Bungy jumping is a high risk behaviour, but it's not the bungy jumper's fault if the operator doesn't secure the bungy cord. In the same way women who take part in high risk behaviour need to be aware of that and so more on their guard, but that doesn't make it their fault if it all goes pear-shaped on them.

Whether they read any situation correctly or not, we have no idea; if the situation was that the rapist could outrun them and there wasn't anybody else to help, what difference would it make to have read it correctly?

Because if they had read the situation correctly they would never have gotten to the point of needing to outrun a rapist with no-one around to help them in the first place. This is the biggest issue as far as I am concerned. If you get to the point of being attacked, then you haven't been looking out for yourself. That still doesn't make it your fault, but it does mean that you are basically ignorant of the world and what is going on around you, or just willing to totally ignore it. You can bounce through a mine field on a pogo-stick if you want, you might even come out safely, but it's far better to know what all those signs you're passing are saying and avoid getting to that point altogether. At the point they hit that mine and everything gets wet and messy, they have actually missed all the warnings leading up to it that would have prevented the incident in the first place.

That's where the education has to be. Know what high risk behaviour is, know the signs of danger, know why not to ignore the signs, and know how to deal with them when they appear.
 
Nope, I don't have evidence and not especially interested in looking for evidence. If you don't want to believe it yourself that's up to you. All I'm saying (for the umpteenth time) is that evidence for alternative causes does not disprove the commonly held belief that clothing choice can be a contributory cause.

So, "for the umpteenth time": you have no evidence, you're not even looking for evidence, but are preaching a positive claim just because it hasn't been disproven? You still don't get this newfangled burden of proof thing, do you?
 

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