Alright... How's this?
From:
http://www.thenewspaper.com/rlc/docs/2008/us-crashcause.pdf (A rather large PDF, just a warning).
For clarity, the "critical reasons" under discussion are the critical reasons for the critical pre-crash event that caused an accident. This report shows that 13.3% of critical reasons were speed related.
In a table above my quote (on page 23) which I am unable to copy/paste, you'll note that more than half (195 out of 388) of the incidents of a person losing control of their vehicle was due to traveling too fast.
Thank you for that. You've now provided something that purports to be what I asked for. I'll study it later.
I'm not willing to pull the thread any further off topic with discussion of speed limits, as it's really only tangentially related to the subject of porn and obscenity laws, and even then, only if you really stretch it. If you'd like to discuss it in depth, please start a thread on the matter.
Noted.
What do public disturbance laws have to do with the right to privacy?
Well, to avoid going down an irrelevant semantics cul-de-sac regarding the meaning of the word "privacy", my point is that the right to free speech in the way of demonstration is limited by other (restrictive) laws. It is this principle that I am drawing to your attention by way of validating the notion that free speech is not, and cannot be, an absolute in the face of other, conflicting rights.
Resist what? No discussion was made by anyone other than yourself about legalizing anthrax. None. Period. What you quoted does not mean what you seem to think it does.
Well let's find out then, shall we? What do
you think I think it means?
No, it is off topic. Disagreeing with something is not the same as ignoring it. Again. If you'd like to discuss the topic in depth, you're more than welcome to create another thread.
Well, I really don't know by what rationale you consider that the meaning of the word "harm" is not pertinent to the topic of the question "What's wrong with porn?", but I guess we'll just have to agree to disagree on this.
The "inference" you're drawing seems to be only obvious to you.
How do you know that? How can you speak for everybody else?
This suggests that your interpretation of what's being typed has nothing to do with it's actual content. Please stick to discussing what I --actually wrote-- and not whatever strawman you can imagine. Thanks.
Clearly, one cannot draw a meaningful conclusion from a flawed premise. But here's what you wrote:
And yes, I truly believe that people should be able to do as they please as long as they don't harm anyone else, or otherwise negatively impact another person's rights. Please note that caveat. I'll even repeat it, and bold it. "As long as they don't harm anyone else, or otherwise negatively impact another person's rights".
So you agree, then, that persistent demonstrating noisily outside private premises should be illegal? And you agree, then, with obscenity laws because they cause harm:
harm
–noun
1. physical injury or mental damage; hurt: to do him bodily harm.
2. moral injury; evil; wrong.
[dictionary.com]
And you agree, then, that
if, repeat
if, it were to be shown conclusively that VCP causes harm you would agree with banning it? And you
consider, then, that
if, repeat
if, it were to be shown that porn, generally, can, in some cases, cause mental damage (which I suggest includes adverse emotional and psychological effects, but feel free to differ!)), it should be banned, or otherwise restricted somehow? Or, are you going to elect, at this point in the debate, I wonder, not to engage further in hypotheticals because that would afford you a seeming safety net?!
I don't think the word "unchallenged" means what you think it means.
Well let's find out then, shall we? What do
you think I think it means?
I am responsible for my claims, and you are responsible for yours. You made the claim that "all laws do is remove rights". You're responsible for demonstrating that that is actually the case.
I honestly don't know what you mean by "responsible" in this context. I'm free to claim whatever I wish, and so are you. You're free to challenge my claims, and I yours. Neither of us, however, is "responsible" for demonstrating anything. If you doubt or contest my claims, or I yours, we are each free to seek to justify such doubt or contention independently. If either of us can show that the other's claims are false then it's case closed. The "burden" of showing whether a claim is true or false rests
entirely with the person seeking proof. If somebody makes a falsifiable claim but is not prepared to prove the claim to be true then they will suffer the consequences, whatever they may be. But having made a claim no person is under any duty whatsoever to proceed further, if they so wish. I guess you could call it "freedom of speech"!
I, on the other hand, claimed nothing of the sort. I merely pointed out that you are obviously ignorant on the subject. Your own statement cited as my evidence. Do you dispute that evidence? Can you "debunk" it?
I would contest that you pointed nothing out, but merely "claimed" my "obvious" ignorance, which, of course, per above, you're free to do. But we both know, per above, the invalidity of the word "obvious", particularly in the context of a person's state of mind. I would suggest that "apparent" is a more appropriate word to use, although I would still disagree with your claim, not that I could be bothered disproving it just for your benefit when I already
know the truth, which is all that matters to me.
Wrong. Civil unions have never had the same rights as marriages have (and i'm talking about the actual contracts and their enforcements, not about anything else that you may be inferring here -- erroneously inferring, by the way, as civil unions in this state apply to more than just homosexual relationships). Therefore, no rights were "given back" as to "give back" rights, those rights must have been had previously, and this is not the case here. You may wish to do some research the next time.
OK, I'll try to explain more where I'm coming from with this "laws" and "rights" issue. There was a time (ah ... GNR ... top band!) when humans were essentially no different from any other animal when it came to right, wrong, morals, ethics, survival, etc. The concept of "rights" and "laws" didn't exist. In other words, every human was
absolutely free to do whatever it wished, when it wished, how it wished, to whomsoever it wished, etc. (subject to physical constraints, of course). There was no governance. Indeed, most animals continue to enjoy this absolute privilege, subject, of course, to any environmental restrictions that man may have imposed on them.
Now, as the human intellect emerged those in a position of "power" (for whatever reason) began to impose their will upon others, for both good and evil, and those affected began to lose their absolute freedom, for better or for worse. This has culminated in societal living, where such impositions have been enacted in "law". In most western societies the overall effect is for the better, as most inhabitants are prepared to forego some freedom in exchange for the benefits that societal living affords. Clearly, life expectency has increased, so there's an obvious evolutionary pressure in that direction. In some other societies the overall effect, arguably, is for the worse.
Regardless of which society one inhabits, it has evolved from an environment of absolute freedom to one of restricted freedom. Man has imposed these restrictions on himself, and those freedoms that we are left with we call "rights", and they are protected and enforced by what we call "law".
Now, some rights derive from whatever societal "code" one is governed by. Take marriage, and by extension, polygomy, for example. The right to marry could be considered a "secondary" right, in the sense that whilst primitive humans, within their absolute freedom, were, in theory, free to marry, the notion of marriage only emerged later, and when it did, the governance that controlled it was already in place. Exactly the same principle applies to polygomy, and indeed, more recently, civil unions. Civil unions, like marriage, were freely available to primitive man, had they had both the intellect and inclination to realize them.
So, as I wrote before, rights have emerged over the passage of time as a set of rules capturing those residual things that one may do or not do from the open-ended "right" to absolute freedom that once existed. And laws essentially form the "rule book". The fact that "secondary" rights (like civil union) might, on the face of it, appear to be "introduced", thereby giving the illusion of increased freedom, does not detract from the fact that the reality of the situation is simply that they are being "re-introduced" to close the gap between what we were once free to do and what we may do today.
Where did I dispute your behavior? I think you're confused about what you're replying to, as I've disputed nothing in the conversation you've been having with quadraginta.
My reference to "above" meant "above in this post", in my quote starting "Er ... you've disputed it.", which you have commented on, and I've responded to herein.