I have no idea, but the real question is why their concerns and goals don't involve the US in the first place?
You're still dodging the question. Why do you think that terrorists everywhere
should have goals and concerns that involve the US?
Movements that combined Northern resistance to Southern economic domination mixed with weird ideas of Islamist "reform" began in Nigeria as soon as independence happened - the violent extremist Maitatsine movement founded by Muhammed Marwa that began in the 60's combined appeals to the urban poor and indigent with a rejection of anything outside the Qur'an
They abused poverty to further their Islamist agenda. Poverty is a tool of Islamists, not the other way around.
Nope. The Maitatsine movement remained a "revolt of the disinherited" throughout its history, with the religious aspects (that got further and further from recognizably Islam as the movement developed, culminating in the rejection of Muhammad completely and Marwa declaring himself to be the True Prophet) being secondary to the socioeconomic concerns.
In fact, the one thing that all the movements that arose out of Northern Nigeria had in common was not their religious ideologies, but their socioeconomic concerns. As are all those other terrorist groups, both Islamist and non-Islamist, who (despite your claims) commit more terrorist violence in the poorest nations on Earth than terrorists in rich Western nations do.
It depends on a case by case basis. They could be terrorist attacks, it depends on the clientele of the cinema. If the overwhelming majority of clientele at the time of the attack was the uniformed military, police, secret police, Nazi politicians and the like, the attack is a perfectly legitimate form of self-defense. If it was something else then it is an unjustifiable terrorist attack.
These targets were in occupied countries, not Germany, and included attacks on unemployment offices (frequented by the occupied, not the occupiers) and theaters where pro-German propaganda films were being shown to the occupied by the occupiers.
Did you have a point to make?
Yes. That you not only have little actual knowledge of the things you're trying to talk about, you keep doubling down on your arguments even when you're shown time and time again that they're wrong, based on incorrect assertions, or both.
And yet every time you quote actual statistics you don't make up on the spot to defend Islam, this assertion of yours is defeated. If this assertion of yours had any semblance of reality I might agree with you. It does not, so I do not.
I've cited all of my sources. Meanwhile, when I asked you to back up your unsupported claim above, you first attempted to dodge it by asking me to quote what claim I was referring to, and when I did exactly that you snipped it from your reply and apparently decided to pretend that you never even made the claim in the first place.
The only difference is that other Muslims reject part of those teachings while claiming to adhere to them in full, using all sorts of weird twisting of meanings and opinions of long dead 'scholars', whereas ISIS takes it as it is and does as those texts say.
Which is just more of
your interpretation of what the texts "actually" teach.
Then again, considering that you have zero clue how Muslims (from ISIS to modernists) actually cite both the text and "opinions of long dead 'scholars'" (Salafists
love them some Ibn Taymiyyah, a scholar who died nearly a thousand years ago), your complete lack of understanding of how abrogation works, and your total unawareness that
jihad an-nafs was and is a very real thing, your credibility when it comes to judging the
existence, much less the validity, of interpretations of Islam leaves very much to be desired.
The passages in the Bible all speak of events in a certain time and place, there is no universal mandate for wanton bloodshed and mayhem, it is strictly limited to one region. This is not surprising, because Christianity is based on Judaism, a non-proselyting religion.
Are you actually trying to argue that Christianity does not claim to be universal and for all people everywhere (thus justifying its common historical practice of wanton bloodshed and mayhem in its spread), because Judaism was a non-proselytizing religion?
7. The Bible has an Old testament and the New testament, the latter supersedes the former.
Nope. The Old Testament gets cited all the damn time by modern Christians. Including in
actual judicial decisions from my State Supreme Court using it to justify anti-gay laws in the US and even the possibility of the death penalty for homosexuality:
"Our cases have held consistently and frequently that Alabama is a common-law state. See, e.g., Louisville & N.R.R. v. Cook, 168 Ala. 592, 53 So. 190 (1910); Hollis v. Crittenden, 251 Ala. 320, 37 So.2d 193 (1948); State v. Taylor, 415 So.2d 1043, 1047 (Ala.1982). Our jurisprudence explains that old English statutes are a part of the common law. The statutes passed in England before the emigration of our ancestors, which amend the law and are applicable to our situation, constitute a part of our common law. See, e.g., Nelson v. McCrary, 60 Ala. 301 (1877); Clark v. Goddard, 39 Ala. 164 (1863); Carter v. Balfour's Adm'r, 19 Ala. 814 (1851).
Homosexuality is strongly condemned in the common law because it violates both natural and revealed law. The author of Genesis writes: “God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them․ For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh.” Genesis 1:27, 2:24 (King James). The law of the Old Testament enforced this distinction between the genders by stating that “
f a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination.” Leviticus 20:13 (King James).
From the passage in Leviticus 20:13, the early western legal tradition garnered its laws on homosexuality.
[...]
The State may not interfere with the internal governing, structure, and maintenance of the family, but the protection of the family is a responsibility of the State. Custody disputes involve decision-making by the State, within the limits of its sphere of authority, in a way that preserves the fundamental family structure. The State carries the power of the sword, that is, the power to prohibit conduct with physical penalties, such as confinement and even execution. It must use that power to prevent the subversion of children toward this lifestyle, to not encourage a criminal lifestyle."
Which was written in 2002, by the man who is Chief Justice of the Alabama Supreme Court today (they finally suspended him without pay last year, but he still holds the title and position until his elected term runs out in 2019 and he's appealing the suspension).
Is there justification for blood and violence in the latter? Some would say yes due to a verse in the gospel of Matthew, but understanding that verse as a call to bloodshed and violence against all things non-Christian is indeed interpretation, which also happens to be at odds with the rest of the section.
Which is yet another double standard on your part, considering you decided to completely ignore Q 2:190 and Q 2:194 when you picked out Q 2:193 above. You pick out single verses from the Qur'an and ignore any and all original context they have, but you insist that Bible verses have to be read solely in the fashion and in the context that you choose.
8. The Koranic equivalent goes from calls to peace to calls for violence, and explicitly says contradictions within are resolved by figuring out which verse came out later.
Ah, more of your complete nonsense regarding abrogation.
Ironically, despite your slur above that moderate Muslims "reject part of those teachings while claiming to adhere to them in full", it's your mangled version of abrogation that actually involves rejecting big chunks of the Qur'an while pretending that it's adhering to them in full. The difference between the moderate interpretations and your interpretation is that the moderate version rejects far less of the text than you do.
It is easy to use the Bible to justify peace and coexistence and it is difficult to use the Koran in that way. It is also difficult to use the Bible to justify wanton bloodshed and mayhem, but trivial to do so with the Koran.
Even the people at Skeptics Annotated Bible know better than that. They take a pretty dim view of Islam and the Qur'an, but they sure don't apply the double standard you do when it comes to the Bible.