I didn't say that it was legal. I said that it wasn't considered rape and so may not have been reported as such.
Again, this is just confusion over legal terms.
You didn't get to a point here. If you are asserting that the portions of sodomy laws that were about forcible sodomy were not tossed out, I'd really love to see a reference. If that's the case, I'm glad to hear it. I'd like to see some legal opinions, though.
Is forceable sodomy "intercourse without consent?" Sure seems like it is.
Sodomy used to be a crime, whether forced or not. Now it's legal to engage in the act willfully, still illegal to do so forceably.
Well, this is excellent. Perhaps you can explain to me, then, therefore, why Illinois doesn't provide data on rape consistent with Uniform Crime Reporting guidelines.
http://www.census.gov/compendia/statab/2011/tables/11s0305.pdf
Is it possible that you
did not know this? Or were you just trying to pull a fast one and get some cheap points by calling it "gibberish" in the hopes that nobody else did?
First of all, you're not looking at what the problem was, but it's moot:
The Illinois Uniform Crime Reporting (I-UCR) Program was directed in March 2009 to revise the program reporting guidelines to achieve compliance to the Federal Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR) Program. The resulting revisions were implemented in January 2010
http://www.isp.state.il.us/crime/ucrhome.cfm
Here's another important part:
Both increases and decreases in certain categories will be realized due to these changes, not necessarily due to an actual increase or decrease in offenses and arrests having occurred throughout the year.
http://www.isp.state.il.us/crime/ucrhome.cfm
Now let's observe the change that was made:
Forcible Rape (Previously Criminal Sexual Assault)
Offenses: Only offenses where a female was forcibly raped against her will are reported.
Previously, all Aggravated Criminal Sexual Assault, Criminal Sexual Assault, Forcible Sodomy, Predatory Criminal Sexual Assault of a Child, and Criminal Sexual Assault With an Object offenses were collected under the category of Criminal Sexual Assault.
Impact: Significant. Due to the narrow definition of the Federal UCR Program, offenses previously reported are no longer collected. Statistics are expected to decrease based on definition alone.
http://www.isp.state.il.us/docs/2010ucrprgimpact.pdf
Yes, Illinois wasn't counted because their guidelines were BROADER than the federal rules. The statistics you cited categorize rape based on the gender of the victim, Illinois used a broader definition.
The UCR, which again, is just a data collection agency, is the one with the horrible definition:
The UCR defines forcible rape as, "the carnal knowledge of a female forcibly and against her will." It does not list rapes against men, nor does it list same-sex rape.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_Crime_Reports
Yup. Good thing, too. And your point is? I guess I'm 100% full of crap on that, too, so you must think it's bad.
No, it's just odd that all of this came up in the context of feminists have too narrow of a focus. They're actually the ones primarily responsible for dealing with the problems you've cited, meaning you're being ridiculous on a number of levels.
Don't know about that, since I didn't make the argument.
"...the majority of states do not have laws criminalizing rape of men."
Again, that's false. It appears that all you've done is resort to a semantic argument parsing the difference between "sexual assault or battery" and "rape." If you actually read the laws, this is not a meaningful distinction. It's still illegal to rape someone in Florida, engage in sexual penetration against their will, even though they call it "sexual battery."
Oh, it's pretty easy. The "sexual battery" language was adopted many places specifically to avoid assumptions about rape, including that it could only happen to a woman.
Find these states. The terms are used interchangeably in most places, and there are still federal laws that refer specifically to rape and are gender neutral. There really is nothing to you points.
But again, of those statutes I posted, only one fills the blank with "sexual battery." If you think this is a meaningful distinction, try to place it properly. Also find me that state statute that distinguishes based on the gender of the victim.
You seem to be convinced that factoids about "rape" apply to the new definitions in "sexual battery" statutes. You know this, and I'm ignorant or stupid or insane. This is kind of funny, because even Illinois, where you say are licensed to practice law, is almost entirely incompetent at reporting statistics (with the exception of Rockford, which has all of 150,000 people).
No, they aren't incompetent, they just used a method that wasn't approved by a particular data collecting source. They are now in compliance.
I notice you skipped the challenge. You didn't even try to distinguish "rape" from "Sexual battery" in the statutes. Why is that? Are you now realizing the lack of a meaningful legal distinction?
This indicates to me a great deal of faith. Would you like to point me to a good statistical study, preferably a victim survey, using a consistently modern non-sexist definition of sexual battery? I'll read it.
Or would you rather engage in more invective and proof by repeated assertion?
I don't even know what you mean by that. I gave you studies by the justice department, you're not going to do better than that, but you just waved all that away because you 1) don't understand laws and statutes and 2) can't tell the difference between data collection and criminal prosecution.