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But even I know that distance times velocity does not give units of velocity
When you use 1 hour to drive 100 km is that not 100km/h ?
But on a lighter note, it completely made my day when I went to section 12 of your web site and read about the relationship between the space wind and the rotation of Uranus.
All what I am saying is only that the inclination of the planets rotation axis is not coincidently. The planets are forces to tip over, to give space for neighbour planets space rotation.
According to Uranus it's rotation axis is of course very strange. I am not writing what
certainly must have happen. - Notice the word
maybe, is used. Uranus could very well
also have been hidden hard.
Bjarne, for Pete's sake proof-read your posts.
Hans, for Pete's sake proof-read your posts
e.g: resulyt. - what is
resulyt
You
you apply a force to it, which is stored as KE.
You cannot even guess at the
reultaant – what is reultaant ?
In other words, you cannot have a
finction – what is finction
Etc……………….
It is bad enough that you are using Gollum English, and bla la bla
Bjarne, that is complete nonsense, on several levels. First of all 200km/h -100% is zero. You cannot subtract 200% from anything.
Right 200 % means 100% Ithought you knew that.
Secondly, you assume some speed to resistance curve
Crap
In other words, you cannot have a finction that means that more speed gives less speed.
Complain to the Lord, not to me.
You will have to get to grips with the fact that resistance and inertia are two very different things.
Inertia is a misunderstood expression since it also applies to constant velocity, - doesn’t matter that you believe the opposite.
Crap
Also, a tornado is not an object
What then ?
A none object maybe ?
It is the course that the airstream between a high pressure and a low pressure takes, due to the rotation of Earth
More crap
A tornado has nothing to do with the coriolis and the coriolis is also not “a force” - if is this is what you think.
You you apply a force to it, which is stored as KE.
And do you have not the slightest idea how / why ?
Except a misty explanation fare out in a unknown dimension nobody anyway ever will understand ?
Notice the result is a "transformation factor" that proportional MUST reflect both - KE + M + (minus) v.
Completely correct. Bravo Hans have got the point.
Bjarne
This all happens because of resistance/deceleration.
Hans
No, it does not. It happens because some of the energy applied to the car is diverted to resistance
Bravo !!! you have got the point again Hans.
Bjarne
If you now want to figure out what is you deceleration, it’s easy.
When you drive 60% per hour the resistance is 40% and this mean 40 km/h.
Hans
Complete nonsense. You cannot even guess at the reultaant velocity unless toy have the applied force.
Off course you can comrade.
If 40% of the velocity of the car (40km/h). - is forcing the car ("pulling") in one direction (because of resistance again motion) and 100 km/h in the opposite direction, the net result 60 km/h forward. This is simple Newtonian (and cow) logic.
Why do you continue to make silly mistakes?
Now if I really show be wrong , please reply to these questions:
1.) Do you it requires more and more energy to get a diminishing increase in speed. ?
2.) Is this not resistance against accelleration ?
3.) If you can answer yes to the two first question, and we assumes that resistance also applies to constant velocity. How fast would you would you decelerate when moving 12240 km/h ? (use the eqaution 1-y)
4.) Don’t you think it’s silly to claim I am wrong
without to show what is then then the correct answer?
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