THE WASP-18b & Space Probes Mysteries

Hello again

I must confess to a slight error on my part. It seems that Bjarne had gotten me confused as to whether his "space drag" should be

[latex]$$a_\mathrm{sd} = a_0 \left(1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\right)$$[/latex]

or

[latex]$$a_\mathrm{sd} = a_0 \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}-1\right)$$[/latex]

Turns out, he's consistently using the latter, so for the sake of honorsty, I shall repeat the calculation (and no, it hardly gets any better for Bjarne).

-------

The argument goes as before, the result is the same, save for a few changed signs:

[latex]$$v=\frac{c \sqrt{M \omega } \sqrt{2-\frac{M \omega }{a_0 Q r+M \omega }}}{\sqrt{a_0 Q r+M \omega }}$$[/latex]

However, this solution is valid for the whole r-range. So is Bjarne perhaps onto something after all?

Well no... lets examine: The generic form of the above expression is:

[latex]$$\frac{\sqrt{2-\frac{1}{1+r}}}{\sqrt{1+r}}$$[/latex]

which, when r gets large, converges asymptotically to

[latex]$$\sqrt{\frac{2}{r}}$$[/latex]

But that is the exact same generic form as Kepler's law for orbital velocity:

[latex]$$v=\sqrt{\frac{MG}{r}}$$[/latex]

So Bjarne has by some weird luck managed to reproduce Kepler's Law, save for a constant (Which is exactly the purpose served by the Skinner-constant Q)

But wait a second: Bjarne claimed that these thoughts provided a solution to some discrepancies from Kepler's Law, most notably the Pioneer anomaly and "the Galaxy Rotation Problem". However, since he merely reproduces Kepler's Law, he also reproduces these discrepancies and has thus not taken us anywhere further.

So, a little better than predicting that orbital motion should not exist, but still no cigar.

Sensation of Physics.
 
Do you deny that we here talk about negative velocity comrade?
And if not what is the deceleration according to your opinion comrade?

You know it's easy to claim that I am wrong, and you are right, but then you must show the right answer
Can you do that comrade?
Or will you lie and say that we do not speak about negative velocity comrade?

There is no such thing as negative velocity.
Deceleration is negative acceleration. It is not negative velocity.

Hans
 
just the place for a snark

No I have illustrated that it is easy to manipulate lazy and stupid people
Just read the thread.
A man with a IQ 50 % larger than mother Cow can easy see I got it right.

Saying it twice doesn't make it so. Charles Dodgson got that right.

And a hearty thank you to Sensation_of_physics.

Will
 
Hello again

*snip*
which, when r gets large, converges asymptotically to

latex.php


But that is the exact same generic form as Kepler's law for orbital velocity:

latex.php


So Bjarne has by some weird luck managed to reproduce Kepler's Law, save for a constant (Which is exactly the purpose served by the Skinner-constant Q)

But wait a second: Bjarne claimed that these thoughts provided a solution to some discrepancies from Kepler's Law, most notably the Pioneer anomaly and "the Galaxy Rotation Problem". However, since he merely reproduces Kepler's Law, he also reproduces these discrepancies and has thus not taken us anywhere further.

So, a little better than predicting that orbital motion should not exist, but still no cigar.

Sensation of Physics.
And this was actually what we found some months ago in the Danish forum (yes, I know you were there ;) ): Essentially, Bjarne inserts +n and -m in the formula, where n=m. And then he claims that proof of his thesis is that the results match. As if they could do otherwise.

Hans
 
I must confess to a slight error on my part. It seems that Bjarne had gotten me confused as to whether his "space drag" should be..............

cows.jpg


Can someone show the poor cows a little merciful and help?
I am terible sorry , - I can not help, because I am only a crazy crackpot and a liar and need fast mental treatment.
So all the calculation here must off course also be a crazy lie too.

-------------------------------------
There is something rotten in the State of Denmark
Shakespeare.
--------------------------------------
 
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No wonder we are getting confused: According to cow #1 the space drag is now:

[latex]$$a_\mathrm{sd} = a_0 \left(1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\right)$$[/latex]

yet again...

And By the way:

Instead he will point us to the numerical values he has produced by laborious punching on his pocket calculator and say "See, they match, therefore I'm right"

which he just did:

Bjarne said:
So all the calculation here must off course also be a crazy lie too.
 
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Hello again

I must confess to a slight error on my part. It seems that Bjarne had gotten me confused as to whether his "space drag" should be

[latex]$$a_\mathrm{sd} = a_0 \left(1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}\right)$$[/latex]

or

[latex]$$a_\mathrm{sd} = a_0 \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}}-1\right)$$[/latex]

Turns out, he's consistently using the latter, so for the sake of honorsty, I shall repeat the calculation (and no, it hardly gets any better for Bjarne).

-------

The argument goes as before, the result is the same, save for a few changed signs:

[latex]$$v=\frac{c \sqrt{M \omega } \sqrt{2-\frac{M \omega }{a_0 Q r+M \omega }}}{\sqrt{a_0 Q r+M \omega }}$$[/latex]

However, this solution is valid for the whole r-range. So is Bjarne perhaps onto something after all?

Well no... lets examine: The generic form of the above expression is:

[latex]$$\frac{\sqrt{2-\frac{1}{1+r}}}{\sqrt{1+r}}$$[/latex]

which, when r gets large, converges asymptotically to

[latex]$$\sqrt{\frac{2}{r}}$$[/latex]

But that is the exact same generic form as Kepler's law for orbital velocity:

[latex]$$v=\sqrt{\frac{MG}{r}}$$[/latex]

So Bjarne has by some weird luck managed to reproduce Kepler's Law, save for a constant (Which is exactly the purpose served by the Skinner-constant Q)

But wait a second: Bjarne claimed that these thoughts provided a solution to some discrepancies from Kepler's Law, most notably the Pioneer anomaly and "the Galaxy Rotation Problem". However, since he merely reproduces Kepler's Law, he also reproduces these discrepancies and has thus not taken us anywhere further.

So, a little better than predicting that orbital motion should not exist, but still no cigar.

Sensation of Physics.

Good work and welcome to the forums. As ever I am amazed by the patience of some of you, keep it up.
 
----------

At the Danish Forum: "Sensation of Physics" use the name Troels I suppose.
HERE everybody can read the essence of the “equation” repeated at this Forum.

The essence of the exact same equation was quote:
If Bjarne was right we should, in other words to see all planets move to the same distance from the Sun. We do not!

This is what this “”equation”” above “should” reveal.

I am sure that Troels have allreadey convince many stupid and lazy that this is a fact. Also even though I did what I could to prevent this ""misunderstanding""

But for those that takes the time to see for them self what I claims, will be insured that what Sensation of Physics try to “show” only was a nasty manipulation, and only with the purpose to derail the discussion.

In other word a dirty attempt to “win” a discussion with dirty means.

A friend told me long ago that people always would treat different thinkers NASTY, and especially in the scientific community,

But that time I didn’t believe people now a days could be so disgustingly.

So Bjarne has by some weird luck managed to reproduce Kepler's Law, save for a constant (Which is exactly the purpose served by the Skinner-constant Q)

Above we can now read a half confession that I was right. , - (A half year after the dirty math was introducing first time).
The two forces equalize each other and MUST off course hence NOT quote:

reproduce Kepler's Law,

but equalizes each other.

----------
 
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I absolutely refuse to comment on Bjarnes pathetic ad hominem attacks. But I think some clarification as to the "single point of equality" is in order.

Well, that is because there is only one point where Bjarnes equations and Keplers law yield the exact same orbital velocity. The rest of the way, the agreement is only approximate - that's the whole essence of "asymptotic convergence".

But Bjarne has most conveniently obfuscated that little subtle fact by only stating the numerical results with two decimal places... and now it seems he has started to believe it himself...

And as I have said, it doesn't really matter if Bjarne has reproduced Keplers Law, because that doesn't bring us anything new, and it certainly doesn't wrap up any discrepancies, contrary to Bjarnes - baseless - claim.

Everything I have ever said under any alias on this matter is still valid. I have no-where "half-confessed" that Bjarnes ramblings have any validity and it would suit him most properly to not indicate such.

I believe Bjarne still has some unfinished business in deciding upon if his space drag is (y-1) or (1-y) - it's not the same.
 
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But Bjarne has most conveniently obfuscated that little subtle fact by only stating the numerical results with two decimal places... and now it seems he has started to believe it himself...
Find the exact date and insert these in the equations and the equation will equalize exactly.
Even mother cow agree.

Everything I have ever said under any alias on this matter is still valid.
God help me.

If Bjarne was right we should, in other words to see all planets move to the same distance from the Sun. We do not!
So you agree to this statement?
Now show us all where is that orbit you claims ?
Insert all the values in my equation and shows that my equation is wrong


My equation have nothing with yours manipulated equation to do camrade Sensation_of_physics


But that is the exact same generic form as Kepler's law for orbital velocity:

So Bjarne has by some weird luck managed to reproduce Kepler's Law, save for a constant

And finally comrade Sensation_of_physics had begun to see that both equation are direct proportional . It took him 1/2 year.
And his own mistake is now claimed to have been caused by a "Skinner-constant Q"
Just a misty complicated way to say: I was wrong but I do not want to admit it.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------
There is something rotten in the State of Denmark
Shakespeare.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
 
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In the equation above, (y-1) expresses the transformation factor but it must naturally reflect the value of resistance as well, not only a factor which is able to show an object’s required energy necessary for acceleration and an object’s increase of mass due to higher velocity.

Do you deny that we here talk about negative velocity comrade?

I do!

As reality check pointed out, (y-1) is not a velocity. Your calculation of v2/c2 is where the veloctiy gets removed. When you divide a velocity squared by a velocity squared you do not get a velocity as the answer. You get a ratio, and that's just a number with no units.

Everything done to that ratio also only involves numbers. The m/s can't just magically stay or come back into the definition of y. It is just a number and it is not a velocity, and therefore not a negative velocity either.
 
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http://exoplanet.eu

And you can search more info stars by stars like that http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fomalhaut
You stated:
Originally Posted by Bjarne
If we compares stars rotations velocity with the (average) distance to their planets, we actually can see a pattern: The rotation velocity of a star seems to be decisive for the (average) distance from the mother star to the planets of the star.
Where is your comparison of "stars rotations velocity" with "the (average) distance to their planets" that lead you to the conclusion that there is a pattern?

Or are you just making an unfounded assertion?
 
You get a ratio, and that's just a number with no units.
That 100% reflect the negative resistance too.

If you are driving 100 km/h and suddenly you get increasing resistance proportional with the velocity. Do you deny this is negative velocity?

Can you state exactly what your equations are and how they differ from Sensation_of_physics equations?
Just use 5 minutes to check it you self.
As mention it’s not more difficult that Mother Cow can do it

Where is your comparison of "stars rotations velocity" with "the (average) distance to their planets" that lead you to the conclusion that there is a pattern?
Just open you eyes. It’s an obvious pattern., excactly as Venus orbit the Sun, and not the Earth.
 
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That 100% reflect the negative resistance too.
Negative resistance? You mean like when you are pushed forward? :confused:

If you are driving 100 km/h and suddenly you get increasing resistance proportional with the velocity. Do you deny this is negative velocity?
Yes. Negative velocity does not exist. What exactly does -2 km/h mean? Does the meter in your car show values below zero?

Just use 5 minutes to check it you self.
You cannot do it, so you want us to do it for you.
 
If you are driving 100 km/h and suddenly you get increasing resistance proportional with the velocity. Do you deny this is negative velocity?

Yes. It is not negative velocity. It is deceleration, or negative accelration, if you must. And no, you cannot say "well, I call that negative velocity", because this is not a matter of language. If you have a formula that requires a negative velocity, then there is an error, no matter what you choose to call it.

Hans
 
Perhaps, if one is driving at a high negative velocity, one cannot get fined?
 
Yes. Negative velocity does not exist. What exactly does -2 km/h mean?
Ha ha ha ha deceleration comrade.

Yes. It is not negative velocity. It is deceleration, or negative accelration, if you must.
That the exact same conclusion as Mother Cow

If you have a formula that requires a negative velocity, then there is an error, no matter what you choose to call it.
Ohhh so you want the word “deceleration” deleted?

Hair-splitting right ?

And once again what is the correct DECELERATION - "if"my way to calculate these ""should"" be wrong comrades ?
 

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