The Future of Moral Science

Precisely! Which is why I’m suggesting that you and soba quit playing Grand Inquisitor, come out from the shadows and tell the waiting world how, in your view, we decide "the moral axioms" from which “science can inform us of how to proceed" to quote your equally reticent colleague.

You don't get it, do you? There is no we, which can be established by science or any other form of objectivity. A we is not objective, it is inter-subjective and you can't use an objective methodology like science to establish an inter-subjective we. In fact it amounts to a contradiction; i.e. a we is both objective and not objective.
 
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OK! But how, in your view, do we decide upon our moral axioms? This surely is the key to the discussion.

I admit I'm a bit confused on what you, Angrysoba and Kevin Lowe are disagreeing with exactly.

It seems most of your claims are of a descriptive nature. While descriptive claims on morality are of course debatable, I wouldn't want to engage in that particular debate before settling each other's position on the most controversial claim in these debates, which is that science can answer normative moral questions.

First of all, I just want to understand your position, so my question is very straightforward:

Do you think science can answer normative moral questions?
 
You don't get it, do you? There is no we, which can be established by science or any other form of objectivity. A we is not objective, it is inter-subjective and you can't use an objective methodology like science to establish an inter-subjective we. In fact it amounts to a contradiction; i.e. a we is both objective and not objective.

You've missed the context. I was responding directly to soba’s comment in #211: “I also certainly agree that science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues, once we have decided our moral axioms”. Hence my question in #212: “How, in your view, do we decide upon our moral axioms? This surely is the key to the discussion”. I still await a response.
 
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I admit I'm a bit confused on what you, Angrysoba and Kevin Lowe are disagreeing with exactly.

It seems most of your claims are of a descriptive nature. While descriptive claims on morality are of course debatable, I wouldn't want to engage in that particular debate before settling each other's position on the most controversial claim in these debates, which is that science can answer normative moral questions.

First of all, I just want to understand your position, so my question is very straightforward:

Do you think science can answer normative moral questions?

It depends upon how, in your view, we answer normative moral questions. So how, in your opinion, do we arrive at what we “should do”?

Personally I don’t think morality has any binding force beyond regular human motivations based upon our ‘hard-wired’ altruistic predisposition, our acculturation as a social species and our growing knowledge regarding human behaviour. Therefore the cognitive sciences are in a good position to inform community moral discourse – increasingly so given that there's so much data and emerging in areas like neurobiology, sociobiology and human psychology about how and why we behave the way we do.

Addressed to Kevin Lowe:

When did you get appointed speaker-for-all?

Ah, but thinking is skilled work don't-ya-know. Those who've got it have a duty to lead. :rolleyes:
 
You've missed the context. I was responding directly to soba’s comment in #211: “I also certainly agree that science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues, once we have decided our moral axioms”. Hence my question in #212: “How, in your view, do we decide upon our moral axioms? This surely is the key to the discussion”. I still await a response.

It's not the key to the discussion at all. But let's go anyway, How do we decide our moral axioms could be said to be by Process X. What is Process X? It doesn't really matter, but how we come to moral decisions is indeed an area that science might give us some interesting insights into, and which is descriptive, rather than normative.

You see the "key to the discussion" is the question from Dani:

Do you think science can answer normative moral questions?

My answer is "No!".

Your answer is...erm....word salad

It depends upon how, in your view, we answer normative moral questions. So how, in your opinion, do we arrive at what we “should do”?

Personally I don’t think morality has any binding force beyond regular human motivations based upon our ‘hard-wired’ altruistic predisposition, our acculturation as a social species and our growing knowledge regarding human behaviour. Therefore the cognitive sciences are in a good position to inform community moral discourse – increasingly so given that there's so much data and emerging in areas like neurobiology, sociobiology and human psychology about how and why we behave the way we do.

You seem to have restated the very question asked of you and then not answered it. What you have said, if anything, is simply a restatement of what science can do in descriptive terms.
 
You've missed the context. I was responding directly to soba’s comment in #211: “I also certainly agree that science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues, once we have decided our moral axioms”. Hence my question in #212: “How, in your view, do we decide upon our moral axioms? This surely is the key to the discussion”. I still await a response.

The problem is that you assume a we. There is no objective we in our moral axioms. In other words the problem remains the same; there is no we as a part of a scientific methodology and there is no we in moral axioms.

Look at it this way - you have to establish that there is a we, before you can ask, how do we decide our moral axioms?
 
It's not the key to the discussion at all. But let's go anyway, How do we decide our moral axioms could be said to be by Process X. What is Process X? It doesn't really matter, but how we come to moral decisions is indeed an area that science might give us some interesting insights into, and which is descriptive, rather than normative.

…and I’m asking you for the umpteenth time what did you mean by: “science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues, once we have decided our moral axioms”. So, how do you arrive at the moral axioms you consider essential to have been decided before, to quote you: “science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues”?

You see the "key to the discussion" is the question from Dani:



My answer is "No!".

Your answer is...erm....word salad

Where did I say “erm”?

You seem to have restated the very question asked of you and then not answered it. What you have said, if anything, is simply a restatement of what science can do in descriptive terms.

…so how are moral axioms arrived at?
 
The problem is that you assume a we. There is no objective we in our moral axioms. In other words the problem remains the same; there is no we as a part of a scientific methodology and there is no we in moral axioms.

Look at it this way - you have to establish that there is a we, before you can ask, how do we decide our moral axioms?

So what do you mean by “our” in “our moral axioms”?
 
…and I’m asking you for the umpteenth time what did you mean by: “science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues, once we have decided our moral axioms”.

Quite simple, once a moral axiom has been arrived at such as Sam Harris's moral axiom, which is that " we ought to maximise the welfare of conscious creatures" or your which changes depending upon the day of the week, either the speciesist "the survival of the species" or the communitarian "social cohesion" then you can use all of the scientific tools at your disposal towards those aims.

So, how do you arrive at the moral axioms you consider essential to have been decided before, to quote you: “science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues”?

You tell me how your axioms are decided. I have not made any axiomatic claims. That's what you still haven't been able to do.

Where did I say “erm”?

Okay, you're not disputing the "word salad" bit.

And you have still ducked a perfectly simple yes or no question:

Do you think science can answer normative moral questions?

Yes or no, Tassman?

…so how are moral axioms arrived at?

You tell me as you are the one putting forward the science of morality argument.
 
It depends upon how, in your view, we answer normative moral questions. So how, in your opinion, do we arrive at what we “should do”?

You haven't answered the question, and your answer doesn't depend at all upon how, in my view, we answer normative moral questions.

So, again, do you think science can answer normative moral questions?

I'll give you my own answer to the question as an example:

No.

Personally I don’t think morality has any binding force beyond regular human motivations based upon our ‘hard-wired’ altruistic predisposition, our acculturation as a social species and our growing knowledge regarding human behaviour. Therefore the cognitive sciences are in a good position to inform community moral discourse – increasingly so given that there's so much data and emerging in areas like neurobiology, sociobiology and human psychology about how and why we behave the way we do.

Fine, but that's irrelevant to my question.

Keep in mind that I'm just honestly asking you that particular question in order to understand your position on the claim that is central to this controversy.
 
Please correct me if I'm wrong, I haven't read every word.

But it seems to me as if Tassman and angrysoba are talking past each other, each with the belief that the other is claiming some objective way of determining universal moral axioms.

A bit of the internet fighting spirit and the inherent ambiguity of a lot of moral terminology seems to have led us to a point where the things you're arguing about are not actually the things you disagree about.
 
Please correct me if I'm wrong, I haven't read every word.

But it seems to me as if Tassman and angrysoba are talking past each other, each with the belief that the other is claiming some objective way of determining universal moral axioms.

A bit of the internet fighting spirit and the inherent ambiguity of a lot of moral terminology seems to have led us to a point where the things you're arguing about are not actually the things you disagree about.

Yes and no ;)

Here is how it works in practice:
Someone(S1): There is no objective we in ethics.
Someone else(S2): Correct.
S1: So when we use we, it is inter-subjective and that let us decide whether some person is wrong in moral/ethical sense.
S2: No, the claim that "you are wrong" in moral/ethical sense, is an objective claim, because you are claiming something about what another human is/has as a property. The same is the case, when you claim that an action/behavior is wrong.

"You are wrong" or "that was a wrong thing to do" is not objective and it is not some you are, just because I claim it nor what you do, is wrong, just because I claim it.

With regards
 
Please correct me if I'm wrong, I haven't read every word.

But it seems to me as if Tassman and angrysoba are talking past each other, each with the belief that the other is claiming some objective way of determining universal moral axioms.

This is incorrect.

Angrysoba is, I believe, arguing that there is no objective way of determining universal moral axioms.

Tassman is arguing that there is no objective way of determining moral axioms, but at the same time there is, because [confused ideas about evolution] and [confused ideas about how society works], and HAVE YOU GOT A BETTER IDEA, HUH, MISTER SMARTY-PANTS?!
 
What do you mean by "we" in relationship to moral axioms? You keep insisting on a "we". Is that "we" axiomatic itself?

I repeat: you've missed the context. I was responding directly to soba’s comment in #211 namely: “I also certainly agree that science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues, once we have decided our moral axioms”. My response was simply using "we" as soba himself used it for the sake of consistency. You're making an issue out of nothing.
 
Quite simple, once a moral axiom has been arrived at such as Sam Harris's moral axiom, which is that " we ought to maximise the welfare of conscious creatures" or your which changes depending upon the day of the week, either the speciesist "the survival of the species" or the communitarian "social cohesion" then you can use all of the scientific tools at your disposal towards those aims.

Scientists, such as Sam Harris, argue from hypotheses which, unlike the axioms of philosophical argument, have the potential for empirical verification. It is YOU who is arguing for “moral axioms” and it is YOU who need explain how YOU arrive at moral axioms YOU consider correct?

You tell me how your axioms are decided. I have not made any axiomatic claims. That's what you still haven't been able to do.

See above re “axioms” in philosophy vis-à-vis science.

It is you claiming the soundness of moral axioms, not me. Hence your argument: “science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues, once we have decided our moral axioms”. So what are these “moral axioms” of yours and how have you arrived at them?

Okay, you're not disputing the "word salad" bit.

I'm not disputing that what you can't understand you dismiss as "world salad".

And you have still ducked a perfectly simple yes or no question:

It is not “a perfectly simple yes or no question”.

Yes or no, Tassman?

Potentially yes. I think it reasonable to argue that moral decisions are potentially subject to the same kinds of rational, empirical scientific examination as everything else. On what grounds do you argue, with your uncompromising “NO”, that the science of morality can NEVER answer normative moral questions?

You tell me as you are the one putting forward the science of morality argument.

No you tell me. Science does not resort to axioms to construct the premises of arguments, only philosophy does that. So again, how are the moral axioms you refer to arrived at?
 
You haven't answered the question, and your answer doesn't depend at all upon how, in my view, we answer normative moral questions.

So, again, do you think science can answer normative moral questions?

Potentially yes.

I'll give you my own answer to the question as an example:

No.

Never? How can you be so confident?

Fine, but that's irrelevant to my question.

Your question does not allow for a simple “yes or no” answer.

Keep in mind that I'm just honestly asking you that particular question in order to understand your position on the claim that is central to this controversy.

And you keep in mind that the human brain, as a purely biological organism, is subject to investigation by scientific methodology as to why and how we behave the way we do and why we consider certain behaviours to be right or wrong.
 
Scientists, such as Sam Harris, argue from hypotheses which, unlike the axioms of philosophical argument, have the potential for empirical verification. It is YOU who is arguing for “moral axioms” and it is YOU who need explain how YOU arrive at moral axioms YOU consider correct?

Which hypotheses are you talking about?

As for "moral axioms", I did not introduce the term to the debate (as far as I can remember), but I think it is a sensible term.

In Sam Harris's case the moral axiom he is working from is that what is morally good is "maximizing the well-being of conscious creatures". This is, as we have stated before not a bad place to start from, and will require philosophical justification in the sense that it could be challenged by counter-examples such as "Ah! But what if we had a hospital in which the doctors secretly used every 10,000th patient for spare parts but the hospital itself ended up maximizing the welfare of all the other patients! Is that moral?"

However, the moral axiom is not itself testable empirically: it is asserted. That is to say it is presupposed as being morally good. It ain't science, mate!


See above re “axioms” in philosophy vis-à-vis science.

And you see mine!

It is you claiming the soundness of moral axioms, not me.

Where do I make this claim? Surely axioms are by their nature unprovable starting points. That is to say assumptions. The question is how safe are the assumptions? In Sam Harris's view his axiom is so clearly safe, he believes, that anyone who disputes it is not worth talking to. I think he has not proved his case, and furthermore he certainly has not done so with science.

Hence your argument: “science can inform us of how to proceed in all kinds of moral issues, once we have decided our moral axioms”. So what are these “moral axioms” of yours and how have you arrived at them?

Let me humour you a little and break it down. The question is somewhat ambiguous and I think you are struggling with the very ambiguity of it judging by your answers to me and to others.

There are a few distinct ways we can answer the question here:

There's the physiological answer:

How does any human make any decision using their brains? Well, it is a matter of physiology and therefore one amenable to scientific scrutiny. If we ever find out it will be interesting, and I don't doubt that trying to figure out why Person X thinks Thought Y is a scientific question. I think you of the opinion that answering this question somehow will tell us something about normative ethics, but that is not the case. This is a descriptive question and is not to be confused with:

The propositional answer:

In this case, we are looking at propositions distinct from the physiological processes required to think them. In this case, we can ask, "Is it right to eat meat?" and then drill down into it to ask about whether the meat came from a conscious animal, and if it suffered pain, and in what circumstances it would be justified. This is a process of conceptual analysis, and while we may use empirical data to let us know whether the animal felt pain, we still have to make judgments that science can hardly help us with such as "Is it right to cause pain?" Ultimately, we may reach the point that someone like Bentham did in which he sees no other considerations for morality other than pleasure and pain, to the extent that something is considered good if it produces pleasure and bad if it produces pain. If we start with that axiom, then we can find all kinds of ways in which science can help promote one and reduce the other. For example, we can build a pleasure machine in which you can strap in and spend the rest of your life having the serotonin receptors stimulated constantly. Of course, a few philosophers saw something inadequate in that conception of morality and improved on it after that. That's a small sample, and I would be interested to know if you see what is meant by moral axioms now. This is the normative answer.

Then there may be a social answer as well.

I call it that, but essentially what I mean is trying to get others to go along with what you see as self-evidently moral. This is trickier ground, but here we come up against problems of relativism, absolutism and nihilism, to name but a few. Sam Harris is a moral realist, that is he thinks there genuinely are objectively true moral propositions. In his opinion, if people disagree about morality, that's because basically almost everyone is wrong just as much as many people used to believe the world is flat. (As far as I remember this was also something Wowbagger believes). This is the meta-ethical answer, I think.

I'm not entirely sure if this is completely correct, however, so I would welcome constructive feedback from you, Tassman. Also, I would be very happy for feedback from Dani, Cavemonster, Kevin Lowe and anyone else.

Oh, and Wowbagger, if you are still out there.

ETA:Let me also repeat in response to your question, "what are these “moral axioms” of yours and how have you arrived at them?":

"I have not made any axiomatic claims."


I'm not disputing that what you can't understand you dismiss as "world salad".

Now, now. I go to a lot of pains to explain elementary philosophy to you, can you not realize that I may struggle to understand rarefied gobbledygook?

Potentially yes. I think it reasonable to argue that moral decisions are potentially subject to the same kinds of rational, empirical scientific examination as everything else. On what grounds do you argue, with your uncompromising “NO”, that the science of morality can NEVER answer normative moral questions?

Because it would be like setting up an empirical enquiry into whether all triangles have three sides. Or whether circles are more sparkly than squares. Or whether purple was more interesting than curry. Or which of the Chuckle Brothers was funniest. It's not a scientific question. That's why!

No you tell me. Science does not resort to axioms to construct the premises of arguments, only philosophy does that. So again, how are the moral axioms you refer to arrived at?

See above.
 
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Ah! Now this is interesting.

You may remember that Sam Harris had a competition for the person who could write the best essay that respectfully rubbished his book The Moral Landscape.

The subject of moral axioms is the heart of the criticism of his book, in an essay by the winner Ryan Born, he criticizes Sam Harris's response to what Sam Harris calls "The Value Problem".

In Sam Harris's afterword to The Moral Landscape, he writes:

Harris pp.200-201 said:
The most common objection is that I haven't actually used science to determine the foundational value (well-being) upon which my proffered science of morality would rest. Rather, I have just assumed that well-being is a value, and this move is both unscientific and question-begging.

He then cites a review from Russell Blackford in which he this point is made.

Sam Harris's answer:

Harris p.201 said:
...the same can be said about medicine, or science as a whole. As I point out in the book, science is based on values that must be presupposed - like the desire to understand the universe, a respect for evidence and logical coherence, etc...

!

I wonder where this leaves Tassman's claim:

Scientists, such as Sam Harris, argue from hypotheses which, unlike the axioms of philosophical argument, have the potential for empirical verification.

Oh no he does not. He says:

Harris p.201 said:
Throughout the book, I argue that the value of well-being - specifically the value of avoiding the worst possible misery for everyone - is on the same footing.

I think that's all that needs to be said as it is essentially an admission that it rests on an assumption, although Ryan Born goes further in his winning essay:

Ryan Born said:
your analogy between epistemic axioms and moral axioms fails. The former merely motivate scientific inquiry and frame its development, whereas the latter predetermine your science of morality’s most basic findings. Epistemic axioms direct science to favor theories that are logically consistent, empirically supported, and so on, but they do not dictate which theories those will be. Meanwhile, your two moral axioms have already declared that (i) the only thing of intrinsic value is well-being, and (ii) the correct moral theory is consequentialist and, seemingly, some version of utilitarianism—rather than, say, virtue ethics, a non-consequentialist candidate for a naturalized moral framework. Further, both (i) and (ii) resist the sort of self-justification attributed above to science’s epistemic axioms; that is, neither is any more self-affirming than the value of health and the goal of promoting it. You might reply that the non-epistemic axioms of the science of medicine enjoy the sort of self-justification you have in mind for the moral (and likewise non-epistemic) axioms of your science of morality. But then your second analogy, between the science of medicine and your science of morality, fails. The former must presuppose that health is good and ought to be promoted; otherwise, the science of medicine would seem to defy conception. In contrast, a science of morality, insofar as it admits of conception, does not have to presuppose that well-being is the highest good and ought to be maximized. Serious competing theories of value and morality exist. If a science of morality elucidates moral reality, as you suggest, then presumably it must work out, not simply presuppose, the correct theory of moral reality, just as the science of physics must work out the correct theory of physical reality.

Note his use of "moral axioms". ;)
 

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