W.D.Clinger
Philosopher
When you can't handle the math and don't know the physics, insulting people who can and do may be a bad idea.I knew that I should not engage with you.Not johanfprins. He guessed wrong:
Originally Posted by johanfprins
You will then also find that the length within K is the same as the length within K/. Clinger go and get yourself a goldfish and become wise.
No, Johan, that is not what I found when I did the math.
Egad.Only a person who is not intellectually capable will do a calculation in SR without first choosing an origin for the time that befits the problem being analysed: i.e. without first synchronising the clocks within K/ and K.
The Lorentz transformation is linear, not affine. It's trivial to confirm that the Lorentz transformation maps the spacetime origin of K/ to the spacetime origin of K, and vice versa. For affine transformations we'd use the Poincaré group, not the Lorentz group.
(ETA: Every linear transformation is affine, but the Poincaré group of affine transformations allows translations. The Lorentz group includes only linear transformations, which map origin to origin.)
For those who may not be familiar with the precise mathematical jargon: When johanfprins gave us coordinates in K/ and told us to use the Lorentz transformation, he was telling us (apparently unknowingly) to use coordinates for K in which both the time and space origins of K and K/ coincide.
I did so. And so, when johanfprins objected to my calculation by writing "Only a person who is not intellectually capable will do a calculation in SR without first choosing an origin for the time that befits the problem being analysed: i.e. without first synchronising the clocks within K/ and K", he told us he doesn't know how to do calculations in SR.
vtNow, before I show you how wrong your calculation is, let us see if you can answer the following SIMPLE question:
I synchronise the clocks in K/ and K when the origins of K/ and K coincide: After a time interval of t on the clock within K, what is the position coordinate x0 of the origin of K/ as measured within K?
Those observations are made entirely within K, so there is no need for any Lorentz transformation.
Although I am perfectly capable of making mistakes, johanfprins has demonstrated (repeatedly!) that he is not qualified to judge.You will most probably also get this wrong!
For example: I stated and proved a trivial theorem that refuted Dr Prins's ridiculous denial of acceleration during circular motion. I made two minor mistakes in that post, which I corrected in these two posts:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=7317538#post7317538
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=7319328#post7319328
With those corrections, however, my proof of acceleration during circular motion is correct. johanfprins has never acknowledged the fact that circular motion involves acceleration, and continued to deny that fact in his subsequent posts.
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