Robin said:
But since we are intrinsically incapable of knowing what that moral consequence is then it does not matter what we choose.
What? We are incapable of knowing which decision is morally right? Robin, you can do better than that. You're skirting the issue.
Well for a start, let’s not misquote me OK? I said
Robin said:
But since we are intrinsically incapable of knowing what that moral consequence is then it does not matter what we choose.
A minor point, but if you're going to accuse someone of misquoting you, don't post the
exact same quote that they quoted as evidence.
It is not my premise, it comes from the theist side of the debate and is called the “Agnostic Defense”. You are using it yourself when it suits your argument, so why is it somehow skirting the issue when I use it?
I've never used the argument that somehow our capability to understand the moral consequences of a choice vanishes if the choice was itself a greater good that came about as a result of human suffering. I don't know what the "Agnostic Defense" argument is (I still don't).
As an atheist I am capable of being fairly certain which decision is morally right because I believe that when suffering appears gratuitous that it probably really is gratuitous.
So, you're saying that if you suspected that the suffering resulted in a greater good (i.e. wasn't gratuitous) by providing you the opportinity to make a moral choice, that you would no longer be able to do what you believe to be morally right?
I suspect that the real reason you know what is morally right and morally wrong is because you can predict the probable immediate consequences of your actions. And a theist is capable of knowing which decision is morally right for the same reason. The question of whether or not a greater good was achieved because of the suffering is irrelevent to how one acts because even if a greater good was accomplished, one must still act in a way that one can reasonably predict is morally right.
But the argument is premised on the existence of an omnipotent, omniscient and omnibenevolent being that will ensure that each and every instance of suffering is individually and specifically necessary to some greater good.
Now I no longer know what decision is morally right because I have to believe that there is some purpose – unknown to me – behind each and every act of suffering.
Amazing! So many theists believe that an omnipotent, omniscient and omnibenevolent being that will ensure that each and every instance of suffering is individually and specifically necessary to some greater good, yet are perfectly capable of acting in a moral way! How do you explain that? Generally, when some bit of logic doesn't seem to match reality, there is a problem with the logic.
But we don’t know what those moral consequences are. Remember we do not know what the greater good is. It may not be to provide a choice. It may be something else as I have explained.
But the greater good may in fact be to provide a choice. What if it is? The fact that we don't know means that we cannot eliminate that as a possibility, and therefore we are capable of making moral choices based on what we do know. Congratulations, you've answered your own question!
For the purposes of this argument we do not need to be omnipotent, because we know from the premise that some greater good will eventuate. So we have on the one hand our own actions which might result in good or bad, and then we have God’s greater good which we know will occur.
We should choose God’s certain greater good and not our own uncertain good or bad.
Why would you assume that the two are mutually exclusive? Theists don't assume that the two are mutually exclusive, for the very reasons you mentioned.
And, as I have said, for the purposes of this argument the foreseeable outcomes are that some greater good will occur regardless.
You keep saying this, but I still have trouble understanding your argument. How does the greatest good occur from failing to act in a moral way if the greater good that arrises from suffering is to provide the choice of acting in a moral way? Yes, a greater good occurs regardless, but the greatest good still depends on your acting in a moral way. In other words, if you don't act in a moral way, a greater good has occurred than if you didn't have a choice at all, but your acting in a moral way would still increase the resulting good even more. Let me illustrate:
- no suffering - good
- suffering, but presenting a choice to another person who makes the wrong choice - better
- suffering, but presenting a choice to another person who makes the right choice - best
The act of presenting a choice is a greater good than no suffering at all. But that doesn't change the fact that the correct moral choice still increases the good in the world compared to the incorrect moral choice.
Already addressed it. For a start you are assuming that we know what God’s motivations are. They might be nothing to do with offering a choice. We don’t know if the outcome of our actions will result in good or bad.
Please quote where I have assumed that we know God's motives. To the contrary, I am assuming that we have no idea what God's motives are. If we knew what God's motives are, then your argument would make some sense -- we could act or not act based on God's motives. But God's motives could be to offer a choice (or something similar in which the greater good would always occur but the
greatest good would occur from us reacting in a morally right way). As such, we cannot use your argument as an excuse to not act in a morally right way.
If the opportunity to choose right and wrong could really justify some act of suffering then you have got to stand by this.
If the mere provision of choice justifies the suffering “regardless of the decision” then that good has been achieved.
Correct, that good has already been achieved, and may have absolutely nothing to do with any good that would be achieved by a bystander acting in a morally right way.
If it actually matters what our choice is then you have to lose the “regardless of the decision” part. You can’t have it both ways.
No idea what this means.
A further problem is that, as CS Lewis puts it “God’s good cannot be so far removed from our good that His black is our white, otherwise we are not saying ‘God is good’ we are saying ‘God is we know not what’”
Now if a human were to cause suffering in order to provide the opportunity for others to do good, we should consider this the worst kind of evil imaginable.
But if a Deity does it we consider this the best kind of good imaginable. So God’s good must be at the very opposite pole to ours.
It is true that God's "good" couldn't involve, for example, murder without any reason whatsoever. But killing is justified by humans as long as the forseeable outcome is better than not killing (such as killing someone in self-defense, for example). Likewise, even though we may not be able to understand the reasons, killing by God would be considered "good" if it results in a greater good that is forseeable by God. That is undoubtedly what C.S. Lewis meant.
This simply means that God is responsible for the unforseeable (by us) greater good, while we are responsible only for the forseeable good. In other words, God's morality would appear to differ from ours due to his omniscience (since we cannot forsee what God can forsee, we cannot determine the consequences of an action by God). That is undoubtedly the case, as atheists often like to bring up events from the Bible that would undoubtedly be considered evil if a person were to do them.
-Bri