jjramsey
Graduate Poster
- Joined
- Jun 24, 2005
- Messages
- 1,494
If Smaug didnt exist, why is Bilbo writing as if he did?
Strawman. Mark 6:1-6 isn't too consistent with the author of the Gospel of Mark intending to write fiction. It looks suspiciously like a failure of Jesus to induce a placebo effect. Moreover, it looks like an attempt to explain away a failure. When fictional characters fail, it is by the will of the author, so there is no need to explain away such a failure; it's part of the plot. If Jesus is mythical, why is he shown failing in the way a charlatan would, or the way an ordinary man who has delusions of having powers to heal would? If Jesus was supposed to fail, why is Mark looks like he is trying to obscure the failure?
If Mark is supposedly fiction, why do the authors of the gospels of Matthew and Luke use him as a source in works presented as if they were fact? Why does the Christian community act as if it never got the memo that Mark was supposed to be fiction? Origin himself was bothered by Mark apparently getting his geography wrong and offered the rationalization that Mark really wrote "Gergesa," which is a town near water, rather than "Gerasa," which isn't. That factual problem would be a non-issue if Mark was supposed to be fictional and not taken as historical. BTW, this too is in a SkepticWiki article:
http://www.skepticwiki.org/wiki/index.php/Geographical_errors_of_Gerasene/Gadarene_demoniac_accounts
Guess who wrote it?
