Mojo
Mostly harmless
Hey, Jonny, how did you do that?
I'm afraid I have no idea what you're referring to. Are you addressing a particular post or poster? Could you be a little more specific, and give examples of what you're talking about?
Hey, Jonny, how did you do that?
Perception of colour categories is a very interesting area. It is all wrapped up with the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis - that language shapes or determines thought.
[/QUOTE]Here's the first couple of articles I came across about it when I googled to remind myself of it:
http://www.apa.org/monitor/feb05/hues.html
http://www.icsi.berkeley.edu/~kay/tics.pdf
I'm really just going to have to withdraw from this 'debate'...
I'm really just going to have to withdraw from this 'debate'...
Bubblefish, I read your reply...you're wrong. You're so, so wrong that I don't know where to begin.
Your musicianship and knowledge of theory is so wildly incorrect that I couldn't just correct your mistakes, I'd actually have to write what would essentially be a book on music theory to explain to you where you went wrong.
So, thankyou for replying to me...but it has become quite clear to me that you don't have a clue what you're talking about when it comes to music.
I wonder if you know even what you are talking about with OS012...
I may lurk for a while yet though.
Peace Out
...
Within all this struggle to define what music is and is composed of, I think we are missing the point. Standard definitions of music, as applied in musical theory, is just a set of agreed upon distinctions that we use to arrange music. When I say that harmony, rythym, and syncopation are 'implicit' in music, I mean music in the general sense, not in a specific arrangment. An arrangment of music is just an arrangment, and their are many possibilities that one can deviate from inside of an arrangment. The possibility for harmony, syncopation, etc etc, still exists in any arrangment of music, just because the arranger choose not to explore them, for whatever reason, is not relevant to my point here.
The earlier point i was making with music is that even one note played on any instrument is still a sort of coupling, a coupling of 'tone' and 'beat'. If I hit a note on a piano, I am playing a tone and hitting a beat. The length and description of the beat is going to be relative to the overall arrangment, but it's still there and can be represented. Indeed, it's beat and tone is what is registered on the musical sheet. So music, at it's most deconstructed level of one singular note, is still a harmony in some sense. I used the word 'syncopation' loosely earlier to describe this, with 'sync' being the important descriptor here. Yes, I am aware that syncopation has a specifis usage, and not all arrangments carry syncopation, but all arrangements have the possibility of syncopation, for it is embedded into the general form and category of what we call 'music'.
again, I am not disagreeing with this in a specific arrangment, I am speaking in the generalized sense of music. Let's make a distinction here between 'music' and 'a piece of music'.
You cannot play a tone without hitting a beat
I'm really surprised that it makes little sense to you if you are a musician. What is so difficult to understand about that? Perhaps it may be my choice of words, but I am describing something quite common in musicianship. Although I am no longer a professional in music, I still work with musicians all the time. They understand that perfectly. What is preventing you from determining my meaning here, I dont understand.
Those up beats are already present in the form, it is the choice of the artist (including dancers) to accentuate them, or not. They dont pop into existence in princaple when they are played, rather, they are in a state of possibility until they are played.
again, like I said, I was using the term loosely earlier, with the emphasis on the 'sync', as in music is a 'syncopation' of tone and beat. I agree that is a confusing usage, and clarified my meaning a few times already.
this is NOT true, or should I say, not complete. If I hit a note out of time, i am still hitting it relative to 'my time', just not the time of the musical arrangment. Take away the arrangment and keep my phrase or note, and I still having 'beats' that I am hitting. Let's say my feel is way off, and I have no 'sense of time', well, I am still hiting beats that can be quantized to the position, such as sequencers are able to provide.
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I think you are limiting you usage of 'beat' to mean 'down beat', and I simply mean 'beat' as a quantification of tone in relationship to length.
and again, all of this is missing the point. music is a sort of generalized coupling, a harmony in the general sense of two or more distinctive elements aligning into performance which is found to be beautiful by the human ear.
...
BF
Remember Bubblefish said that STEORN wern't going to profit from this?
well again quoting you:
I think I can spot the motive, but then everyone except BF was able to play spot the scam...
No, you said that harmony and rhythm were essential to music, which is simply not true.
But harmony and music are not essential for music, and music can exist and be found beautiful without them. Therefore your argument falls apart.
It falls apart anyway, since beauty, in music or people, is subjective.
Ah, I was using "false" in the conventional fashion.
What is "it's higher abstractional category"? (or even "its higher abstractional category").
My great-great-great-great-grandparents lived, but I know sod all about them. However I am certain (with the usual caveats) that they did.
Is this idea "False by default"?
ummm, do we have any links to that story other than a conversation on a skeptics forum with members who clearly only question the data they are opposed to and not the data that supports thier argument?
That would be helpful. Until then, try using the OS. If that is true, then yes, Steorn appears to be lacking integrity here and that is indeed reason for suspicion. However, is that story true? Amazing how you didnt question it one bit, put it 'true' tag on it because it supported your belief system.
links please....
Incidentally, why is the pessimistic interpretation described as "skepticism"?
Because, as you would be aware if you knew anything about the culture you are living in, that is the usual interpretation given to the "half full/empty glass". For example:and ask yourself, how did you come to the conclusion that the skeptic's argument was pessimestic? Did I use that word?
A common conundrum illustrates optimism-versus-pessimism with the question, does one regard a given glass of water as half full or as half empty? Conventional wisdom expects optimists to reply, "Half full," and pessimists to respond, "Half empty" (assuming that "full" is considered good, and empty, "bad").
Would you care to rephrase that?therefore, in the glass analogy, a half full glass is a glass whose existence defines the state of the glass, and a half empty glass defines it's non existence in the state of the glass.
Then why haven't you cited any of them?
Yes. And the clearest proof of that is the fact that there are demonstrably some people who can explain string theory, and others who demonstrably have obtained an understanding of string theory after it was explained to them.
.... neither of which holds for BS123 or whatever it calls
Certainly. Your theories are a combination of vacuous truism mixed with a serious misunderstanding of some fairly fundamental aspects of reality. It's demonstrably not only not led you to greater understanding of the world, but has quite probably led you to misresprent and misundersand other areas of the world that are unrelated to your theories (such as the nature of beauty and or the relationships between music, harmony, and rhysim.
I have. I've satisfied myself on the course of this thread that you do not have the capacity rationally to answer reasonable questions.
However, since you asked nicely, I will give you one more chance to answer a reasonable question.
What verifiable evidence is there that the adoption of this framework will have any positive benefits at all for the adopter?
Now what does the man playing the role of the High Counsel of Academia close with? ANOTHER FRIGGIN' STRAWMANHowever, since you asked nicely, I will give you one more chance to answer a reasonable question.
What verifiable evidence is there that the adoption of this framework will have any positive benefits at all for the adopter?
I said to kitten:there are quite a few people who can make sense of OS 012, and some can explain it better than me.
You made an assertion. A claim. I am skeptical of claims in the rational sense, meaning, when someone asserts a claim, I question it. You claimed that OS 012 is false
I am the only one who can make sense of it.
I know from countless personal experience that that claim is flat out false.
In reality there is an idea that is called OS 012 that many people have understood and modeled.
As stated INNUMEROUS TIMES IN THIS THREAD, This discussion is not about the efficacy of OS 012,
As stated INNUMEROUS TIMES IN THIS THREAD, this discussion is about it's theoritical components,
When I make a formal presentation of OS 012, including it's efficacy, you'll read about it in a PUBLISHED JOURNAL
Ah, I was using "false" in the conventional fashion. What is "it's higher abstractional category"? (or even "its higher abstractional category").
are we still arguing over this?? again, there is a distinction between an arrangment of music, which is just one POSSIBILITY, and the environment of MUSIC, which allows for a unique arrangment of ANY PIECE OF MUSIC.
See, I am referring to the category music which organizes all classifications of musical arrangments and compositions, performances and expressions, and your just talking about a handful of expressions.
Catch up..
BF
P1: A subjective judgment does not require a objective judgement or evaluation. As such, a subjective truth is a truth that CANT be recognised as true by everybody.
P2: If a judgment is not subjective (i.e. - it holds mutual observability) then it is objective.
P3: If beauty in SOUND is subjective then very few would recognise the same SOUNDS as being beautiful, and the freeway would hold similar captivation as a dumptrunk as Mozart or Miles Davis, and in similar statistics.
P4: Everybody with ears that can determine relative or pefect pitch recognises the same quality of SOUND as being beautiful. Sounds which produce harmony in a general sense are indeed commonly found to be beautiful, or more beautiful than other sounds in the environments
CONC: Therefore, beauty in SOUND is subjective in some sense and objective in another, and therefore music's beauty is both objective and subjective