Actually, I can think of two beautifully succinct ways to rebut your claim that beauty in music is objective.
KQQL
The first argument is as follows:
P1: An objective judgment does not require a personal judgement or evaluation. As such, an objective truth is a truth that can be recognised as true by everybody.
P2: If a judgment is not objective (i.e. - it requires a personal judgement) then it is subjective.
P3: If beauty in music is objective then everybody would recognise the same music as being beautiful.
P4: Not everybody recognises the same music as being beautiful.
CONC: Therefore, beauty in music is subjective and not objective.
umm, isnt that what everybody has been arguing already this whole time? Isnt that what third value viewpoints deconstruct into nothingness and contradiction?
I am aware of what the argument looks like in bivalency. That's what happens with bivalency, it splits things into EITHER objective OR subjective, and truly, if something is PURELY objective, then it's not subjective, and vice versa. I think that's the form.
Now, what I want you to do is 'consider' that beauty, or anything really, color, reality, etc etc, is both objective and subjective in some sense, and that the relationship betwen the object and subject is not black or white, but rather possibly a little bit of both.
Consider your own form for the argument, but placed upon your own anti-thesis, that beauty is subjective.
P1: A subjective judgment does not require a objective judgement or evaluation. As such, a subjective truth is a truth that CANT be recognised as true by everybody.
P2: If a judgment is not subjective (i.e. - it holds mutual observability) then it is objective.
P3: If beauty in SOUND is subjective then very few would recognise the same SOUNDS as being beautiful, and the freeway would hold similar captivation as a dumptrunk as Mozart or Miles Davis, and in similar statistics.
P4: Everybody with ears that can determine relative or pefect pitch recognises the same quality of SOUND as being beautiful. Sounds which produce harmony in a general sense are indeed commonly found to be beautiful, or more beautiful than other sounds in the environments
CONC: Therefore, beauty in SOUND is subjective in some sense and objective in another, and therefore music's beauty is both objective and subjective[/QUOTE]
The second argument is shorter and is as follows:
P1: Dissonance is by definition not pleasant for humans to hear.
P2: Some pieces of music that contain dissonance are considered beautiful.
CONC: Therefore, our definition of beauty cannot be defined by what is pleasant for humans to hear.
Well, at least your other argument didnt contain contradictions in itself like this one does, your conclusion leads one to suspect that beauty cannot be defined by what is pleasant to the ear, which means beauty most hold some objective criteria!
And I'm sorry, the dissonance in music is not an argument against music's objective beauty, I dont buy it. There may be a few dissonant pieces of music out there, Miles Davis did a few, Sun Ra, etc etc. Dissonance in music when it is accentuated as the dominant form is interesting to musicians and music heads for distinct reason, and it's not because it's pleasant to the ear, it's for it's artistic expression against form. Note that when any artist produces a dominantly dissonant piece, the numbers of fans drops dramatically. Dissonance is not what is found to be beautiful in music in the common sense because it contradicts the OBJECTIVE qualities of music, and is thus ONLY supported by the subjective components of beauty, which is still another harmony, the harmony of thinking and feeling.
The first argument is the stronger case against your claims, while the second one is a weak but I think interesting argument about how we can or cannot define beauty.
so if we cant define beauty, then how is it you can define it as subjective? if we cant truly define something, then it's structure is UNKNOWN, a third value event, niether totally objective nor totally subjective.
Consider, if something exists in an objective sense, it can be hidden by a subjective viewpoint, clouded if you will. F# was 'hidden' from the musical ear of the chinese, yet is that genetic? no, of course not, it was a cultural evaluation which simply prevented them from hearing or defining it due to limitations in the culture, not the genetics. thus, many millions of chinese perfectly enjoy western music to this very day since they discovered western music. If it was so subjective, you would think then that it would be limited to culture, and clearly Yo Yo Ma has provided us with evidence to the contrary.
BF