Yes, I see, but, now looking at this from a different perspective, could not the author of Matthew been helping to answer a question his Jewish-Christian audience would have? Namely, are we still Jews? Are we bound by the same taxes? And if this is the case, then wouldn't Matthew's Jesus be basically telling them, no you don't have to pay the tax, but the problems that would arise by not paying are worse. Plus if the taxes were being collected by devout Jews, Jesus would be showing concern for not offending them (the devout Jews) as they felt they were doing God's work...
(Kinda spitballin' I know but I've really been trying to remind myself to look at each Gospel individually and not mush it all together like it had been spoon-fed to me as a child.)
Also Piggy, could you please define what you mean by "strongly rabbinical"? I think vaguely understand what you mean, but I would rather be sure.
Speaking of rabbis, do you think the author of Matthew was making any type of statement by only having Judas use that title when addressing Jesus at the Last Supper? The author of Mark didn't seem to have a problem with Jesus being addressed as rabbi...
I believe with Matthew the reference would have had more theological and social/political value since I think by that time there was no Temple tax, but I'd have to dig on that. I'm going off the cuff here.
Jesus is not depicted as anti-tax
per se. The point seems to be more specifically the taxing of the agricultural folk to support the Temple bureaucracy in Jerusalem, an issue he speaks about more than once. He accuses the scribes of taking food from the mouths of the poor.
As for the rabbinical/priestly split, you can draw parallels between the modern day split between highly centralized churches (Catholicism, Mormonism) on the one hand, and decentralized churches (Baptists, Methodists) on the other.
And since Israel was a theocracy, you can also draw parallels between the division of powers -- and wrangling over those powers -- between federal and state governments in the USA.
The priesthood in Jerusalem was rigidly central and hierarchical. The Temple is the only sanctified place of worship, the priests are the arbiters between Israel and their God, the scribes are their representatives in the villages, sacrifice must be made by all Jews and it must be made at the Temple, and all of this is supported by taxation and the sale of sacrificial animals.
The synagogues at that time were not what we think of today, kindof the Jewish equivalent to the local First Baptist Church. They were village councils, but in a theocratic system in which the Law was also Scripture.
The rabbinical tradition grew up around local communities, and the rabbis who studied and commented on Torah (the Law).
The scribes, in a way, mediated between the Temple and the synagogues.
Jesus appears to have been a Galilean rabbi with his own school (or sect) who favored autonomy from Jerusalem -- not a split, but a kind of independence.
He seems to have viewed the Temple as bloated and corrupt, and essentially unnecessary. It's very likely that he opposed the practice of sacrifice altogether.
He was not a proponent of revolution against Rome, however, as were the Zeolots and certain other groups who viewed the Romans as unclean and believed God would punish Israel for allowing them to interact with Jews. By all accounts, Jesus opposed the kind of xenophobic racism inherent in that sort of strict interpretations of Torah.
So Jesus didn't oppose the Temple because it associated with Rome. He opposed them because he felt they were living high on the hog at the expense of the farmers and merchants in the countryside.
I believe that the most likely reason for his crucifixion was indeed sedition, but against the Temple, not Rome. During that time, Rome oversaw Judea, but allowed it to have its own internal Temple-based government.
So it makes sense that something like the synoptic account could be accurate, but without all the drama there at the end.
I imagine that it's very likely he was brought up on charges, arrested by the Romans at the behest of the Temple (the Romans had control of law enforcement) and executed for inciting sedition against the Jewish government which was sanctioned by Rome.
ETA: You can also draw parallels with the current situation in Afghanistan and parts of Pakistan, where local mullahs interpret sharia (traditional Muslim law) and often resist the imposition of power by the centralized governments in Kabul and Islamabad.