Edx
Philosopher
- Joined
- Feb 1, 2008
- Messages
- 5,642
I'd like to know how some of this is calculated. Take my industry for example. I'm a process tech for a large municiple water utility. There are more men in our field, at least in the wastewater side, but there are probably 7 or 8 women. We get offered a bit of overtime. There are two groups of people that don't take over time at all. The ex military guys who have pensions aside from their job and the women. All the "overtime pigs" are men.... Including me. I'll take any shift, cancel any function to get overtime. The women just seem to value the time off more then guys. Even the OT they do take is usually done just to get more days off (1 OT shift equals 2 days off). Now i wonder if that is tabulated women being paid less then men?
That is exactly how they decide women are paid less than men. They also represent that as women literally being paid less for the same job and they need to create government legislation to force companies to pay men and women equally, but of course since the "gap" was never due to pay inequality but rather different choices, this would mean actually having to pay women more money for less work.
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