So A4V is based on an idea that the signature is currency, and as the bankers can't lend money they don't have it does fit that the bank funds a loan from a pot that is accesed by the signature. Seems quite logical to me. A4V is just another signature that allows access to the over all fund.
That is the way i have come to see what FMOLers say, and why there is no proof the theory to me sounds sound. Unless anyone is able to proove that loans are given on a base amount of money collateral in the bank and not on the strength of a signature?