Virus
Philosopher
- Joined
- Jun 19, 2006
- Messages
- 6,875
struggling to see how your post addresses my question.
"It seems to me there is obviously a difference if its the home of the jews....so how is this difference administered if not by laws?"
are you saying there is no difference between how the government deals with Jews and non jews in Israel. Or there is a difference but its not administered or driven by laws...? Or maybe you are saying there are inequalities under the law and are rationalizing it?
could you clarify?
Legally there is no difference. If individuals practice discrimination then that's in spite of the law.