RationalReverend
Critical Thinker
- Joined
- Feb 18, 2007
- Messages
- 278
Ignoring for now the purpose of the particular phrase I chose, please answer my original question.
Would you agree that it is possible that some terms in the bible were originally meant in a literal sense, and we now interpret them to be figurative? Would you then further agree that it is possible that some phrases now read literally, after another 400 years have passed, may be viewed differently?
Such distinctions need not be made. The Old Testament never intended to function as a science manual, and when it uses Geocentric language it never says "Yahweh has instructed me to tell you the earth is flat!" It is an assumption of their writing because of their day not a teaching of the text. If your next question is how do we know, the answer is by reading the text! Again, the clues are obvious.