Kumar said:
I want to understand;
Why glycosuria or the polyuria/polydipsia are not really beneficial to the patient & why they're not deliberate mechanism evolved by the body to cope with hyperglycaemia? Is it not good to excrete excess sugar into urine by encouraging
polyuria/polydipsia? Much adverse effects are not indicated of glycosuria.
No. The amount of glucose lost (not "excreted") in the urine is pretty insignificant as far as controlling hyperglycaemia is concerned. Also,
any event which increases the blood glucose above the renal glucose threshold will lead to glycosuria - such as intravenous glucose treatment or, as you noted, a high consumption of carbohydrate short-term - it's not a specific mechanism related to diabetes. It's just the way the kidney works, it's not a desirable or beneficial effect.
Man has evolved in an environment of food scarcity. All adaptive mechanisms are geared to conserving calories where possible. No adaptive response wants to waste glucose. It's just that the kidney didn't evolve to cope with blood glucose over about 10mmol/l because that is never seen for more than very short (and insignificant) periods in healthy people. So when blood glucose is high in diabetes, you get an overspill effect.
Glycosuria is an adverse event. It leads to osmotic diuresis, polyuria, and dehydration (if not corrected by polydipsia). It also predisposes to serious urinary tract infections. It is
not a good thing to have.
Also, encouraging polydipsia does not lead to glycosuria. If you deliberately drink more, you will not get glucose in your urine unless your blood glucose is over the renal threshold - and if it is, you will not be able to help drinking more, because the excess glucose in the urine will force you to do it.
The glycosuria is the primary event, causing the polyuria, which then causes polydipsia. But of course Kumar's been at the bass-ackwards machine again.[/B][/QUOTE]"Indeed, experience shows that long-term diabetics often have an increased renal glucose threshold,"
Can't it happen due to medications/hyperinsulinemia? [/B][/QUOTE] Long-term diabetic patients do not have hyperinsulinaemia. Unless they've been injecting too much insulin. In which case they become hypoglycaemic and suffer faints and collapse. Low blood glucose will not lead to an increased renal threshold. Once again Kumar has been at the bass-ackwards machine.
Kumar, diabetic patients do not have "too much" insulin! Quite the opposite! Early type II patients might have abnormally high levels, but that's a different matter. If they are hyperglycaemic, they do not have "too much". They still don't have enough. It is too much glucose that causes insulin resistance, not insulin.
And if a diabtic patient takes too much insulin, he will not become insulin resistant, he will become hypoglycaemic.
And the presence of glucose in the urine is a meaningless side-effect of the functioning of the kidney when blood glucose is above a certain level, there is no deep significance to be found in that.
Oh, why do I bother.
BSM, shoot me now.
Rolfe.