PixyMisa
Persnickety Insect
Right. Again, idealism makes sense if you ignore the Universe. Since it's attempting to explain what the Universe is, this seems counter-productive.
Why do you suppose that there's a link at all between information being massless and its requiring an underlying conscious experience to exist? And why do you implicitly apply to this consciousness properties such as cohesiveness, singularity, and apparently agency? And...If, at a more accurate level of examination, the universe can be described as (a very large quantity of) massless information then we have to ask ourselves what kind of existence can information even have without some consciousness or other experiencing it?
...a time-like analog, and said time-like analog's being outside of space time, and that constituting a mystery that somehow needs to be solved? Most of the properties I named so far seem eerily like attempts to project the properties of your own conscious mind upon reality.And what would time even mean to a conscious God-being that was outside of spacetime?
In other words, you presume that it's beyond our capability to comprehend a time-like analog working outside of time.Such a question is unanswerable because it is outside of our level of comprehension.
All you really know about the universe and all therein is that it's objectively independent of you in some way (realism) and that it works just fine according to chemical/physical laws and processes (naturalism).
But that's all you know. You don't know what it's ultimate nature is.
Furthermore, as soon as you accept that all the things we experience about the universe are filtered through our senses - which they are - you're accepting that we can never truly know the ultimate nature of neumenal reality.
So I'm left to wonder. We have:
A) A magical self-perpetuating and self-generating non-conscious powder or power behind it all.
Or
B) A magical self-perpetuationg and self-generating consciousness behind it all.
Without any way to conclusively answer the question I'm wondering why you don't just apply Occam's razor instead of multiplying unknown entities?
Is it really logical to assume that a Universe (composed ultimately, of massless wavy-gravy information) is more likely produced by an unknown thing (that is pure conjecture) than a consciousness which has a firm theoretical grounding being based upon something we do know exists (i.e. our own individual consciousnesses)?
What is/are your conclusion(s)?
I think everyone in this thread has said that we cannot know the ultimate nature of reality, making it hard to determine who HypnoPsi is arguing against.
I do not understand the combined use of those metaphors. You're saying we have a blind spot for an elephant in the room? That what is obviously there is fundamentally unknowable?
No. You are still misunderstanding what "evidence" means.
An observation cannot be evidence for A rather than B, unless it is more probable that we would make that observation if A is true than it is probable we will make that observation if B is true.
There is no evidence that we are ideas in the mind of some "God", because every observation you could ever make even in theory is equally good evidence for materialism.
It deals with it as well as or better than competing theories like idealism or theism, which is all one can ask.
Pretending to have an answer to a big problem isn't the same as solving a big problem, you see. The person who first said "I believe that the Sun is a flaming ball being pushed by a magic dung beetle" was dumber than the person next to them who said "Buggered if I know what the Sun is, I suspend judgment". Pretending to have some answer to "the enigma of infinity" is a backwards step from honest ignorance, not a forward step.
Science cannot offer any explanations for the origins of fundamental principles, because by definition, a fundamental principle has no origin; that is, if there's an explanation at all for the origin of a principle P, then P is not a fundamental principle. The same is true about "ultimate nature".
Both of these presume that there's such a thing as a fundamental principle or ultimate nature in the first place; that's not a guaranteed state of affairs (it could easily be the case that P can be described in terms of Q and R, Q can be described in terms of P and R, and R in terms of Q and P, and neither are really more fundamental in any reasonably meaningful sense, for example).
First off, science is not materialism, is philosophically neutral naturalism. The two ate not equal sets, materialism is an abstract that says there are no unknown factors that do no present themselves as the physical manifestation of the universe.
Science is neutral to ontology.
two issues here:
-the concept of infinity is a concept.
-the universe is what it is, it does not meet our expectations of it
In terms of math you can certainly have infinity and finite together.
Take the real numbers whole 1,2,3,4,5 , they are finite, there are five in that set, however if we start to parse the sets between them by say 1/2 then we have another set of numbers 1.5, 2.5, 3.5, 4.5, and again by 1/4 we have 1.25, 1.5, 1.75....4.75, 5.
Now we can continue this series say with .1, .01 and , .001, where we will have correspondingly higher numbers in the sets between the real number something like 999 x 3 in the third set series (.001), right so far all finite.
Now we can continue to parse the intermediate sets for as long as we want using correspondingly fine divisions 10-4 , 10-5...10-11,000,000, and so on, mathematically there will always be a series of numbers in between the selected numbers. And so the set of rational number between whole numbers will always be larger than the finite set of a series of whole numbers.
Now because this is math we can ask the question, what happens in we continue the iterations. Between any two rational numbers there will always be more rational numbers and therefore there is no end to the iterations that could be carried out. Therefore the limit of this series in infinity.
Therefore there are an infinite number of possible rational numbers between any two whole numbers.
We have infinite and finite together.
Well in terms of space time it is the universe not needing to meet out expectations of it, there is an estimate that the universe contains ~ 1070 elementary particles of the boson variety in it. It is a finite number and it appears that the universe may have a finite start.
However the bounds of the universe can be infinite. It can extend forever forward in time, maybe not but it could.
neither has an apiriori requirement capture, science only has to model and predict or try to explain. In fact the renormalization of the infinities in gauge theory by Gerard_'t_HooftWP is a good example of this. It uses infinity as a concept to explain the finite values of forces.
Not really some of them are infinite with finite boundaries.
I think you are not using the standard definition of empirical.
Nope.Originally Posted by HypnoPsi View Post
Yes, it is special pleading in the most extreme sense!
The basic problem is the materialist's conflation of methodological materialsm with metaphysical materialism.
Methodological naturalism works.
That means that metaphysical materialism is true.
Because that's meaningless. Metaphysical naturalism doesn't speak to "ultimate truth", but to behaviours.However, absolutely none of this entails metaphysical materialism is the ultimate "truth".
That's nothing more than handwaving.
Naturalism is correct; that is how the Universe behaves.
Materialism is reasonable, it's merely the assertion that the Universe is how it acts.
Idealism is just the addition of another fundamental reality underneath that for no reason whatsoever.
Rejecting the existence of the world, just when it suits you, is not skepticism, it is lunacy.
We simply infer that the fact that the Universe behaves as if it were material in all respects suggests that it is.
naturalism and materialism are the same.
That's exactly what they do. They take what we observe and invent fairy tales.and theistic phenomenalism (sometimes known as pantheism or panentheism) doesn't somehow deny the existence of reality or that it works in a fairly machine like fashion.
No, see below.Nope. Not in the slightest. Realism and naturalism only mean realism and naturalism are 'true' or, certainly, methodologically workable.
Until you can show real evidence for your magic powder or power underlying neumenal all you have is belief and faith.
It's only about behaviours. If that's all you can ever know - something everyone on this thread agrees on - then all else is piffle and materialism is true.So now it is only about appearances?
Right. Because that doesn't mean anything.What empirical observation does not tell us - and cannot tell us - is the true neumenal essence of things.
Ah, sorry.
Sorry, you simply repeated one of the metaphors. That doesn't help at all.The blind spot is acknowledging the presence of the elephant.
It is blind to aspects of reality which are not based on known processes in the physical world.
Exactly, by definition. If it has an origin, you cannot call the principle a fundamental principle."A fundamental principle has no origin"?
Unfortunately, that's the logical fallacy of special pleading. If this God cannot be comprehended by logic (to use your phrase), you can't discuss the topic logically.Yes, regarding evidence, let me put it better;
The last post in 'Omnipotence a serious question'
"My post is leading to what one might deduce in consideration of an “infinite omnipotent God”.
In my opinion such a God cannot be comprehended or limited by logic in any hypothetical way, as in the OP.
Yep. I thought you'd made that pretty clear before, but to restate it even more explicitly:Exactly, by definition. If it has an origin, you cannot call the principle a fundamental principle.
Yes, that's pretty much what critical thinking is. You say that as if it's a bad thing.I am intrigued by this 'critical thinking', which has been mentioned. It appears to be a series of boxes designed to box in an argument and then invalidate it.