Belz...
Fiend God
Yes. This is just the Kantian divide into the phenomenal and noumenal realms.
****. Here we go again !
Yes. This is just the Kantian divide into the phenomenal and noumenal realms.
It doesn't matter if qualia is the result of anything, the qulia itself is still an absolute experience. It simply is and debating this won't change this. Or would you really disagree with this?
It's axiomatic, unless you want to enter the bankrupt realm of the solipsist, or to posit a form of idealism that is ultimately indistinguishable from materialism.
If an idealistic model of the universe exists that allows us to better explain the universe and to make more accurate predictions, I've yet to see it.
Take a good look at the monitor in front of you. It's there because a materialistic model of the universe actually works. Is that evidence enough?
It provides the best explanations for, and the most accurate predictions regarding, that which we experience.
By definition, qualia is experience. Makes you wonder what's the use of it, since we already have a term for it: "experience".
But saying "qualia" doesn't really answer the question. It sounds intuitive at first, until you realise it gives no mechanism for experience to function.
Assuming that only materialism can receive confirmation from sense-data is what? Special pleading?
Something that feels right in your gut-- Very few will argue with your gut, as long as you're up front about it. Just don't expect folks to believe that what you're saying is true based on nothing other than the strength of you personal conviction.
"Something independent of me" means something that exists regardless of whether I exist.
A mind-independent, consistent, probabilistically predictable universe seems to exist. There is no reason to assume that it doesn't.
My basic point stands -- there is no safe move from epistemology to ontology.
Um, energy and time are not key essentials of materialism? Really?
More accurately, what is actually working (when we invent/build/use things like monitors) is a model of the objective world based on both realism (in the sense that things really do 'exist') and naturalism (in the sense that they work according to the principles of chemistry and physics that we have so far uncovered).
How so when it involves multiplying unknown entities?
If we're going to seriously ask what the best theory is for the ultimate nature of neumenal reality, i.e. it's true fundamental essence, shouldn't we apply Occam's razor to the problem?
My conscious mind can create, store and retrieve information and it certainly exists.
Consequently, all that theistic phenomenalism says is that the ultimate unknown noumenal essence of reality is more likely to be similar to something already known to exist, meaning consciousness, than something unknown.
How can it truly be more parsimonious to say that the ultimate unknown noumenal essence of reality is actually another unknown and unknowable self-generating and self-perpetuating magic powder/power?
Again, I am fully aware that all metaphysical statements about the fundamental nature of reality are all nothing more than theoretical conjecture but the above really is the bottom line for many of us.
It's like you all expect the fact that you use the term "matter" in the methodological sense (really, to apply to nothing more than just realism and naturalism) to somehow add support to metaphysical materialism!
As I really hope you understand, metaphysical materialism is a very different beast than realism and naturalism and theistic phenomenalism (sometimes known as pantheism or panentheism) doesn't somehow deny the existence of reality or that it works in a fairly machine like fashion.
Well, yes. Funny how that works.@PixyMisa: You make a lot of statements that you don't give any (for me) comprehensible explanation for.
I asked the dead people.I don't really know how to answer to assertions when I don't really know why you think it's true. So I will only answer to where I have something to relate to other than just a statement.
You say when you die, there will be no experiences more at all. How will that statement ever found to be true?
The question is meaningless. The subjective self stops. It's jsut a function of your physical brain, and the brain has died. The situation is not subjectively anything, because your subjective self has gone.You assume it will be true based on what we seemingly know about minds and matter, but don't adress the question how the statement possibly *can* be subjectively true (if it can't be subjectively true, but only "objectively", what would this mean to me?)
Only in the present tense. Considering the past and the future it makes perfect sense.It simply can't come true for me, because absent of experience there is no way of even saying that "I" am this what has no experience.
You haven't always existed. You can remember a certain span of your personal past, and beyond that - nothing.It seems tautologically true that when I define myself subjectively only through my experience (and this seems to be the only way, because I *just have* experience) non-experience is not meaningful for me.
Of course.Non-experience has only relative meaning as something I fail to experience (for example laying down in the . Absolute subjective non-experience has no reality for me.
Are you sure it has for you?
No it's not. Consciousness is a process; it changes with respect to time.Comparing after death with before birth, doesn't work. I'm not saying you can't have the experience of being whithout a clue as to what your past was (in non-lucid dreams this is quite common) or have discontinuities.
It is possible that time is an appearance in consciousness and consciousness as such does not begin or end, but just is.
No it's not. You can write the words, but you can't conceive of such a thing.Even if you think this is not what science suggest, is as least conceivable (for me at least).
You die, and then there's no more you.Whereas stopping to exist just makes no sense for me.
That's a non-sequitur. Your conclusion is not logically connected to your premises.When I'm stopping to be, I am not there, so why would I think it's possible for me as conscious being to not exist, it's seems like straightforward contradiction.
No.So to sum it up: Beggining to exist can be a experience one has. Stopping can't (well you can fear that you stop to exists, for example at a trip, but you don't actually experience it). That's the crucial difference.
The evidence indicates that the universe existed for billions of years before your consciousness, my consciousness, or any consciousness, emerged. Consequently, I conclude that the universe is mind-independent.
Nope.Yes, it is special pleading in the most extreme sense!
The basic problem is the materialist's conflation of methodological materialsm with metaphysical materialism.
Because that's meaningless. Metaphysical naturalism doesn't speak to "ultimate truth", but to behaviours.However, absolutely none of this entails metaphysical materialism is the ultimate "truth".
That's nothing more than handwaving.What is important here is that you recognise that theistic phenomenalism (in either the Berkleyan or Kantian sense) works just as well here as metaphysical materialism.
As you wrote above yourself "a form of idealism that is ultimately indistinguishable from materialism".
That's what you are doing.How so when it involves multiplying unknown entities?
We did.If we're going to seriously ask what the best theory is for the ultimate nature of neumenal reality, i.e. it's true fundamental essence, shouldn't we apply Occam's razor to the problem?
So?My conscious mind can create, store and retrieve information and it certainly exists.
That position is only tenable if you ignore the evidence of your senses. And that is solipsism.Consequently, all that theistic phenomenalism says is that the ultimate unknown noumenal essence of reality is more likely to be similar to something already known to exist, meaning consciousness, than something unknown.
And that's a strawman.How can it truly be more parsimonious to say that the ultimate unknown noumenal essence of reality is actually another unknown and unknowable self-generating and self-perpetuating magic powder/power?
Yes, and it's based on the rejection not only of all evidence, but of the very possibility of evidence.Again, I am fully aware that all metaphysical statements about the fundamental nature of reality are all nothing more than theoretical conjecture but the above really is the bottom line for many of us.
No, sorry, wrong. Atheists are being precisely as skeptical as they should be. Rejecting the existence of the world, just when it suits you, is not skepticism, it is lunacy.Atheists just aren't being skeptical enough.
That again is a flaming strawman. We simply infer that the fact that the Universe behaves as if it were material in all respects suggests that it is.It's like you all expect the fact that you use the term "matter" in the methodological sense (really, to apply to nothing more than just realism and naturalism) to somehow add support to metaphysical materialism!
No, actually. It's just a shorthand. If we accept that the only thing we can know is how things behave, naturalism and materialism are the same.As I really hope you understand, metaphysical materialism is a very different beast than realism and naturalism
That's exactly what they do. They take what we observe and invent fairy tales.and theistic phenomenalism (sometimes known as pantheism or panentheism) doesn't somehow deny the existence of reality or that it works in a fairly machine like fashion.
That's just you.In consideration of Cantor sets for example, I see a system which seems to span infinity, but always falls short.
But only because you're conscious now. You don't experience the state of being unconscious. You experience waking up and inferring that during the night you were "unconscious". Contrary to a final death, this does not mean you ceased to exist, but simply you failed to have experience with certain properties (like knowing it is night), that would be there if you hadn't slept.
I don't see that we disagree, though some might point out that your parenthetic comments we would be more accurate in saying "in the sense that things really do seem to 'exist'", and "...that they seem to work according to the principles of chemistry and physics that we have so far uncovered".
I'm not aware of a theory that explains the ultimate nature of numenal reality, so it doesn't make sense for me to ask which one is best. Theories are tentative explanations, having varying degrees of predictive power, for phenomena we observe.
Odd that the noumenal would predate the emergence of consciousness, if the "noumenal essence of reality" is consciouseness, as you suggest...
I don't recall saying that.How can it truly be more parsimonious to say that the ultimate unknown noumenal essence of reality is actually another unknown and unknowable self-generating and self-perpetuating magic powder/power?
I agree with the part I put in bold, if you replace the words "theoretical conjecture" with "idle speculation".Again, I am fully aware that all metaphysical statements about the fundamental nature of reality are all nothing more than theoretical conjecture but the above really is the bottom line for many of us.
Again... a cart before horse argument.
All you really know about the universe and all therein is that it's objectively independent of you in some way (realism) and that it works just fine according to chemical/physical laws and processes (naturalism).
But that's all you know. You don't know what it's ultimate nature is.
Furthermore, as soon as you accept that all the things we experience about the universe are filtered through our senses - which they are - you're accepting that we can never truly know the ultimate nature of neumenal reality.
So I'm left to wonder. We have:
A) A magical self-perpetuating and self-generating non-conscious powder or power behind it all.
Or
B) A magical self-perpetuationg and self-generating consciousness behind it all.
Without any way to conclusively answer the question I'm wondering why you don't just apply Occam's razor instead of multiplying unknown entities?
Consciousness can create, store and retrieve information and we all, intimately and directly, know that consciousness exists.
Is it really logical to assume that a Universe (composed ultimately, of massless wavy-gravy information) is more likely produced by an unknown thing (that is pure conjecture) than a consciousness which has a firm theoretical grounding being based upon something we do know exists (i.e. our own individual consciousnesses)?
~
HypnoPsi
The concept of qualia isn't supposed to provide a "mechanism for experience to function". It's asking you to think about how mechanisms can consciously feel the subjective quality of an experience unless consciousness is a distinct phenomena in it's own right.
But that's all you know. You don't know what it's ultimate nature is.
Consciousness can create, store and retrieve information and we all, intimately and directly, know that consciousness exists.
Is it really logical to assume that a Universe (composed ultimately, of massless wavy-gravy information) is more likely produced by an unknown thing (that is pure conjecture) than a consciousness which has a firm theoretical grounding being based upon something we do know exists (i.e. our own individual consciousnesses)?
~
HypnoPsi