Materialists......

WHY? I repeat: You are the one making the extraordinary claim. I am merely claiming that objective science is not well-equipped to study subjectivity, which remains a statement of the obvious.

Who's smell do you like better, boys or girls?

Sounds like a subjective question based on personal preference.
However:
http://psych.wisc.edu/auger/411papers/papers 2006/kat.pdf

It would be more accurate to say objective science has not accumulated enough knowledge to fully explain subjectivity, but we are getting closer.

People have been crazy in various forms for a long time. How and why someone could randomly go into a state of violent shaking and convulsions seemed impossible to understand. But, instead of leaving it to metaphysical "demons", people took the objective approach that lead to our understanding of epilepsy.

Okay, so objective is the opposite of subjective. Why? What's the difference?

Objective: free of emotions or prejudices
Subjective: based on emotions or prejudices

Question: What is emotion or prejudices? Can emotions and prejudices by objectively analyzed?

http://www.psycheducation.org/emotion/brain pix.htm

The answer is . . . not yet. But, in the context of human history, "not yet" does not mean definitely "no".
 
Mmm-no. Explain to me how smelling involves "photon exchange". Actually, what is "photon exchange"? Photon is light. The energy of a photon can be "exchanged" by various processes like scattering or absorption. But the photon itself ceases to exist when absorbed, and if a photon is reradiated by some medium (scattering), the photon has a new k vector (direction) and is a new photon. So I could understand light scattering as "photon exchange", but our perception of the external world is not mediated by photon exchange.
Seeing, yes.
Listening, hearing, feeling, no.

<pedant>
Technically, hammegk is right with the photon exchange thing -- feeling (as in touch) and hearing are a matters of sensing and interpreting various pressures and tempatures, pressure and tempature are abstractions of how often/how fast atoms and molecules bounce off eachother, atoms and molecules bouncing off eachother is a result of electrostatic repulsion between their respecitve electron clouds, electrostatic repulsion is a function of virtual photon exchange.

Smelling is much the same, except that the sensors are tailored to recognize different shapes of molecules instead of just their aggregate tempature and pressure.
</pedant>

<pedant mode="extra snark">
Hammegk left out graviton exchange, though, which renders his entire worldview flawed. ;) Leaving out w/z bosons and gluons is alright, since they don't have much effect at our scale.
</pedant>

Granted, it is a few more layers of abstraction than is generally needed. :)
 
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No, you're just an incoherent materialist, like all the rest of them apart from the eliminativists who have actually figured out that the only logical way to defend materialism is to deny that minds exists.

Why am I incoherent?

My view of the word and meaning of "mind" makes me an eliminativists, in that I don't have much use for the word except in philosophical discussions.

The fact that I still regard folk psychology as useful might make me a bad eliminativists, but I choose to interact with people on a similar level to them, including their beliefs, biases, and assumptions for the simple fact that I've operated similarly for so long.

I am perfectly comfortable believing that all mental states and actions can be broken down to the most fundamental of physical processes (biologica/electrochemical). Eliminativism, right?

I am also perfectly comfortable believing we may never achieve that kind of scientific understanding. Not eliminativism, right?

Words like "mind" and "belief" may not be perfect in a purely physical world, but those words are nevertheless useful for incredibly complex organisms with incredibly limited knowledge of that physical world and our physical brains.
 
<pedant>
Technically, hammegk is right with the photon exchange thing -- feeling (as in touch) and hearing are a matters of sensing and interpreting various pressures and tempatures, pressure and tempature are abstractions of how often/how fast atoms and molecules bounce off eachother, atoms and molecules bouncing off eachother is a result of electrostatic repulsion between their respecitve electron clouds, electrostatic repulsion is a function of virtual photon exchange.

Smelling is much the same, except that the sensors are tailored to recognize different shapes of molecules instead of just their aggregate tempature and pressure.
</pedant>

<pedant mode="extra snark">
Hammegk left out graviton exchange, though, which renders his entire worldview flawed. ;) Leaving out w/z bosons and gluons is alright, since they don't have much effect at our scale.
</pedant>

Granted, it is a few more layers of abstraction than is generally needed. :)

Ooooooooh. I didn't think of virtual photons.

Yeah, if "photon exchange" is referring to "virtual photons", then yes, quantized energy transfer by electrostatic repulsion and attraction is involved in physical processes that allow humans to perceive the external world.
 
NO. It is IMPOSSIBLE.

Opposites, remember?

"It is extremely difficult to be left at the same time as right." WRONG
"It is impossible to be left at the same time as right." CORRECT

WRONG.

It is possible to be left (of object A) at the same time as right (of object B).

Geez, can't believe you fell for that one...
 
Okay I have to know something. What's with this 1-1=0 stuff?

Someone asked you what each number represented, you said zero represents "not nothing" and then linked to some diatribe of someone saying "everything cancels out to 0, so therefor nothingness is everything. So why should I care what a Nobody has to say? No really, sounds like a nonsequiter and it assumes everything DOES in fact cancel out to zero, but it doens't seem to be working that way. Do you believe (or know HAS to be true) that there is an equal amount of antimatter floating around just waiting to annihilate with the matter, and what becomes of that energy? Things seem to cancel out to "not zero".

Further, just because you can come up with some example like "left and right can never be the same [from the same reference point and in referring to the same thing in terms of a straight directional line and not a circular path around the globe]" (addition mine, to make it immune to zaayrdragon's counter argument to the first form), what makes you think that conciousness IS in fact mental processe's opposite? (Or whatever it is you are trying to say?) We are arguing it's not it's opposite, some "other end of the coin", but rather that we ARE in fact those mental processes, and why that should be the case is no more mysterious than "what is the absolute truth of what the world is ACTUALLY like, without our own observations to tell us?". From my perspective, such a question is nonsensical.
 
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Okay I have to know something. What's with this 1-1=0 stuff?

zaayrdragon said:
WRONG.

It is possible to be left (of object A) at the same time as right (of object B).

Geez, can't believe you fell for that one...

The point, as far as I can tell, is that subjective and objective are opposites. And since their are opposites (antonyms), I think JustGeoff believes it is ridiculous to argue that objective processes are indistiguishable from subjective experiences.

Quoting JustGeoff's OP:

----"(M1) What the materialist is actually entitled to say is the following:

"Somehow, in some way that we really do not understand, subjective experiences and brain processes are one and the same thing. They must be, otherwise we cannot understand where the additional "thing" has come from. It would be incompatible with physicalism."

(M2) What the materialist is not entitled to say:

"I cannot tell the difference between subjective experiences and brain processes. They are identical, and indiscernable. I do not know what you mean by "inherently subjective". No such things exist.""----

Hold on. "I cannot tell" implies a person's subjective view on these two concepts. If someone says they cannot tell the difference between a subjective experience and a brain process, that's their perogative. JustGeoff believes this is ridiculous. That is his subjective opinion and that's his perogative.

I personally don't consider a subjective experience to be the same exact thing as a brain (objective) process. I actually don't know who on this board does. I've known about subjective experiences a lot longer than brain processes.

However, arguing that objective and subjective are opposites and this irreconcilably renders subjective experiences impossible to define by objective processes, I don't agree with.

I hope this clarifies for everybody.
 
Not really, because I'm not sure why he thinks that, which is what I was trying to get to. So you can define them as distinct. Well that's all well and good except I can define atoms as distinct from the sandwitch they create, but I wouldn't say they are opposites. I can also define brain processes as electrical activity, and define them as distinct. More to the point, one doesn't need a brain to have conciousness, so it seems, but just something that emulates brain functionality.

Let me put it one more way. You seem to be asking "how does a brain process create conciousness? Not in a million years can you ever tell me that!". But eh, so what? All that matters is all the evidence points to that being the case. How can I just blow off that question? The same way I blow off the next one. "How is it that mass causes gravity? How is it that particles generate a magnetic field?". Now, we actually have a number of models for those two, but there are certain fundamental things where all we can say is "all we know is that it's the case that this causes this, but we really don't know why that's the case, and probably never will, and since all we really need to know is that this causes this, it's fine".
 
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As soon as we start to really think about these sorts of questions we realise that we don't understand the question at all. So the mystery of their unsolvability is not actually a mystery - they have no answer, not because they address something profound but because they fail to address anything real.

You have demonstrated the problem quite nicely. The problem is not that these questions do not address anything real. The problem is that reality is bigger than the one concieved by science. You have equated "real" with "material" and therefore you have been forced to declare that all my questions are irrelevant because they refer to things which "aren't real".

You're just making my point for me.
 
Perhaps you could give us one of those answers then.

You have to find answers to those questions yourself. One of the things I've learned from talking to people on this board is that spoon-feeding them answers doesn't work. They just spit them out. Instead, you have to ask the right questons to get people to work out the answers to those questions themselves.
 
Geoff said:
You have demonstrated the problem quite nicely. The problem is not that these questions do not address anything real. The problem is that reality is bigger than the one concieved by science. You have equated "real" with "material" and therefore you have been forced to declare that all my questions are irrelevant because they refer to things which "aren't real".
Science, schmience. I'm not convinced the questions mean anything on any level. Putting the questions into words does not make them meaningful.

You have to find answers to those questions yourself. One of the things I've learned from talking to people on this board is that spoon-feeding them answers doesn't work. They just spit them out. Instead, you have to ask the right questons to get people to work out the answers to those questions themselves.
Jeez Geoff, get over yourself.

~~ Paul
 
They only matter if you assume that they have meaning at all. If you ask me "who am I ?" and I answer that you are a biological entity with such and such processes and are the sum of your experiences, is that answer any less true than a more satisfactory, philosophical answer? I don't think so, because it describes exactly what you are, even if it is unflattering.

It is a less satisfactory answer because it is woefully incomplete. I am not merely a piece of meat. That is only a partial description of me and some of the things it leaves out are very important.

Let me give an easier example of important non-scientific questions with important non-scientific answers. Kant on ethics: How do I decide what is a moral thing to do? Kant's answer: The categorical imperative:

"Act only according to that maxim by which you can at the same time will that it would become a universal law."

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Categorical_Imperative

Very simple. Imagine that whatever you do, everybody else did the same thing in the same situation. If the result is a world you would not want to live in, or worse - a world which could not exist because it would be illogical - then you should not act in this way.

There is nothing scientific about this question. It is purely philosophical. But it is not irrelevant, and it refers to something very real - human moral decisions. Few things are more important than this.

You're the one who's making them opposites, Geoff. I've said that subjectivity is a subset of objectivity. Do you have any comment on that ?

Yes. It doesn't make sense. In what sense is subjectivity a subset of objectivity? Please don't answer the question by providing an argument which is critically dependent on an assumption of materialism i.e. "If materialism is true, then minds are really brains, and brains are objective physical things, so subjective must be a subset of objective." Any answer of this logical form simply begs the question. You need to supply some means of justifying the claim that subjective is a subset of objective which doesn't depend on initially assuming that materialism is true.

Another comment of mine you've ignored: if a machine can read your neural functions and tell someone else that you're seeing red, or that you're happy, and if we could, somehow, display what you see or imagine on a tv screen or even transmit it into someone ELSE's brain, wouldn't that completely destroy the idea that the subjective is beyond the realm of science ??

No. The subjective realm remains hidden from objective view even in your examples. In the first example, we still do not know how the subject experiences red. The second example is more interesting. You are suggesting a telepathy machine. If such a device could be made to work then maybe we could have an inroad into scientific study of the subjective realm. But I don't believe such a machine is logically possibly. The problem is that minds aren't like software. They are content-addressable instead of location-addressable. Your brain doesn't store memories by changing electrical states of a fixed piece of hardware. It (somehow) stores memories withing the very structure of the neurons themselves. If it worked like a computer then you could just collect up the information and establish the same information in the brain of the recipient. But because it is content-addressable, this can't work. It will not be possible to download thoughts into peoples brains because there is no way of creating the correct network of neural connections other than the way they are created by nature. In order to do this artificially we would need to know precisely how the brains neural network stored every bit of information - and A.I. has already demonstrated this is impossible. And if we cannot do it in a computer, we certainly won't be able to do it in a brain. Even if by some miracle we managed to do it, we would then be faced with the problem of artificially recreating the same network in the recipients brain even though the rest of the recipients brain would be different to the original subjects. That would amount to modifying one part of a neural network without affecting the others. This is completely impossible, as anyone who knows anything about neural networks will confirm. Such a machine is an impossibility.

"Thought" is a material process. No one is positing two things, here.

Then what are you claiming? I presume you aren't just using a double-definition of "thought" to mean two things (this would be a false equivoation).

If you are claiming "subjective experience IS IDENTICAL to a material process" then you are making a claim that these two terms are synonymous. But they are not so, because they have completely different descriptions. If you are claiming "subjective experience IS NOT IDENTICAL to a material process" then there are two things.
 
Okay, so objective is the opposite of subjective. Why? What's the difference?

Objective: free of emotions or prejudices
Subjective: based on emotions or prejudices

That is an over-specific definition. It is a single case of the more general definition:

Objective: Mind-independent.
Subjective: Mind-dependent (in some way).

Question: What is emotion or prejudices? Can emotions and prejudices by objectively analyzed?

Have a look for some literature on emotions in cognitive science. There isn't any.
 
Okay I have to know something. What's with this 1-1=0 stuff?

Someone asked you what each number represented, you said zero represents "not nothing" and then linked to some diatribe of someone saying "everything cancels out to 0, so therefor nothingness is everything. So why should I care what a Nobody has to say?

Because we trade in ideas and arguments on their merits here, not on arguments from authority? We think for ourselves. We don't let others do our thinking for us.

No really, sounds like a nonsequiter and it assumes everything DOES in fact cancel out to zero, but it doens't seem to be working that way. Do you believe (or know HAS to be true) that there is an equal amount of antimatter floating around just waiting to annihilate with the matter, and what becomes of that energy? Things seem to cancel out to "not zero".

No. It is an active theory but it has not been proved. It is linked to the question of what dark matter is, the fate of the universe and the mechanisms of mass and gravity. All these things are cosmological headaches and given the current furore about neutrinos having mass even though the standard model says they shouldn't....watch this space.

Further, just because you can come up with some example like "left and right can never be the same [from the same reference point and in referring to the same thing in terms of a straight directional line and not a circular path......

Perhaps that is why we need zero as a fixed reference point. THE ONLY fixed reference point.

We are arguing it's not it's opposite, some "other end of the coin", but rather that we ARE in fact those mental processes.....

Then you are reducing ME to some processes in a piece of meat. That isn't what I am. It is the philosophy of philistine. Why should I conform to your mindless reductions of a human being to a piece of meat? Why should anyone else conform to it? Why should all questions be reformulated so they make sense to science even if they know longer serve the purpose they were originally intended to.
 
The point, as far as I can tell, is that subjective and objective are opposites. And since their are opposites (antonyms), I think JustGeoff believes it is ridiculous to argue that objective processes are indistiguishable from subjective experiences.

That is correct.

Hold on. "I cannot tell" implies a person's subjective view on these two concepts. If someone says they cannot tell the difference between a subjective experience and a brain process, that's their perogative. JustGeoff believes this is ridiculous. That is his subjective opinion and that's his perogative.

No, it's ridiculous because these two concepts are defined entirely differently and used entirely different. This is not a matter of mere opinion. It is a etymological fact.

I personally don't consider a subjective experience to be the same exact thing as a brain (objective) process. I actually don't know who on this board does.

Then answer the million dollar question: How do they differ? What is the defining difference?
 
You have to find answers to those questions yourself. One of the things I've learned from talking to people on this board is that spoon-feeding them answers doesn't work. They just spit them out. Instead, you have to ask the right questons to get people to work out the answers to those questions themselves.

So you CAN'T provide the answers ? Maybe there ARE none.
 
Let me put it one more way. You seem to be asking "how does a brain process create conciousness? Not in a million years can you ever tell me that!". But eh, so what? All that matters is all the evidence points to that being the case.

But this is the whole problem! It doesn't! There is no evidence to suggest this at all. How many times do I have to repeat this: The evidence merely shows that minds supervene on brains. This is not the same as "brains create minds". It is a terminological difference that almost nobody here seems to have appreciated the relevance of. If you don't understand this, then you won't understand the rest of my argument.
 
So you CAN'T provide the answers ? Maybe there ARE none.

I could give you some very long answers to those questions, which would no doubt provoke some very heated debate, if not unleashing total chaos. Justifying my answers would take a very long time and a great deal of effort.

I can give you one answer though.

The meaning of life, if there is one, is associated with a search for the correct answers to those questions and for undoubtable confirmation that the answers are the correct ones.
 
It is a less satisfactory answer because it is woefully incomplete. I am not merely a piece of meat.

Yes you are, Geoff. As are we all.

Let me give an easier example of important non-scientific questions with important non-scientific answers. Kant on ethics: How do I decide what is a moral thing to do? Kant's answer: The categorical imperative:

"Act only according to that maxim by which you can at the same time will that it would become a universal law."

I'm not much interested in philosophical drivel, because it ceased to be useful quite a long time ago. Yes, you ARE a piece of meat, and you're MERELY the sum of your parts. To assume otherwise assumes the existence of an immaterial soul and, as you said, begs the question.

Very simple. Imagine that whatever you do, everybody else did the same thing in the same situation. If the result is a world you would not want to live in, or worse - a world which could not exist because it would be illogical - then you should not act in this way.

How is the neural processes that bring you to this conclusion unscientific ??

There is nothing scientific about this question. It is purely philosophical.

So says you.

Yes. It doesn't make sense. In what sense is subjectivity a subset of objectivity?

Easy, even within your restrictions. Subjective experience is based on interpreting incomplete data from the objective world. It is subjective specifically BECAUSE it has only bits and pieces of the objective information available. You don't form subjective experiences ex nihilo. I don't think you can name a single human emotion, memory or process that isn't directly linked to a known physical process. And that remains true whether or not thought is seated entirely in the brain.

The subjective realm remains hidden from objective view even in your examples. In the first example, we still do not know how the subject experiences red.The second example is more interesting. You are suggesting a telepathy machine. If such a device could be made to work then maybe we could have an inroad into scientific study of the subjective realm. But I don't believe such a machine is logically possibly. The problem is that minds aren't like software.

How do you know that ?

Also, as mentioned in that example, we can TRANSMIT that very thought into someone else's brain, making that person experience the very same thing. Taken to its logical conclusion, that thought could be broadcast to every human on the planet, simultaneously. The experience would no longer be subjective. By your own definition, it would mean that science would automatically become capable of analysing it.

They are content-addressable instead of location-addressable. Your brain doesn't store memories by changing electrical states of a fixed piece of hardware. It (somehow) stores memories withing the very structure of the neurons themselves. If it worked like a computer then you could just collect up the information and establish the same information in the brain of the recipient.

Well, since neurology still has a long way to go, I don't see how you can make that claim.

and A.I. has already demonstrated this is impossible. And if we cannot do it in a computer, we certainly won't be able to do it in a brain.

We can't do it with a computer ? That's new.

Then what are you claiming? I presume you aren't just using a double-definition of "thought" to mean two things (this would be a false equivoation).

If you are claiming "subjective experience IS IDENTICAL to a material process" then you are making a claim that these two terms are synonymous. But they are not so, because they have completely different descriptions. If you are claiming "subjective experience IS NOT IDENTICAL to a material process" then there are two things.

The former. How are they different ? How would you know and how could you tell the difference ??
 

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