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LDS II: The Mormons

Compelling evidence that you prejudge LDS beliefs, labeling them as "superstitions"; hence, your mind is closed.

I don't uncritically accept superstitions either.

If your beliefs are not superstitions, then there has to be a pre Colombian horse culture and forged steel in the Americas. There are no options for you. Absent the evidence of the two things, why exactly should anyone's mind be open to LDS beliefs?
 
"Divine disfavor" is linked directly to natural law. You make a distinction where there is none. Example: God looks upon child abuse with disfavor. That fact drives, in part, the Church's position on same-sex marriage in which, if a child is involved, he/she will never have a biological father or a biological mother.

The gap in logic would be showing that not having a biological father/mother is equivalent to child abuse.

Speaking of logic, that leads to an interesting quandry. If it is child abuse, and a parent dies in an opposite-sex marriage, how long does the surviving spouse have to remarry, before he/she should be charged with child abuse?

Would you support a law requiring remarriage? If not, why not? If it's child abuse never to have a biological father/mother, a parent who does not remarry would be conmitting child abuse as surely as a parent who starves a child or whips them bloody.

Otherwise, it seems you're stretching for reasons to be against same-sex marriage without actually thinking them through and having the guts to apply the same laws to opposite-sex marriage.
 
"Divine disfavor" is linked directly to natural law. You make a distinction where there is none. Example: God looks upon child abuse with disfavor. That fact drives, in part, the Church's position on same-sex marriage in which, if a child is involved, he/she will never have a biological father or a biological mother.

Then why does your 'god' let single-parent families be formed by the death of a spouse? Should widows and widowers be forced to remarry, or face child abuse charges?
 
Compelling evidence that you prejudge LDS beliefs, labeling them as "superstitions"; hence, your mind is closed.

I don't uncritically accept superstitions either.

You have yet to even attempt to provide the least minim of evidence for the existence of your 'god'. Without evidence, your beliefs about your 'god' are, in fact, superstitions, and your acceptance of them is, in fact, uncritical.

You have yet to provide the least minim of evidence for a culture that "covered the land" for "thousands of years", cultivatng barley and wheat, and kine and swine, and the horse; and making steel.Without evidence, your exciting stories from the BoM are, in fact, superstitions, and your devotion to them is, in fact, uncritical.

As with the BoA, etc.

You fail to provide evidence, you wish me to purchase your invisible pig in a non-existent poke; and when I insist upon evidence you dare call my mind closed?

Consider Russell; consider Bacon; consider the first steps of reason.
 
If your beliefs are not superstitions, then there has to be a pre Colombian horse culture and forged steel in the Americas. There are no options for you. Absent the evidence of the two things, why exactly should anyone's mind be open to LDS beliefs?

Not to mention, evidence of the mere existence of 'gods'; evidence that such 'gods' "were as we are" and that we may "become as they are"; evidence that Abraham somehow got his autographic "diary" of his "time in Egypt" into a standard Egyptian funerary text, in "reformed egyptian"; evidence of fifth-century compasses...to name but a few, and the list goes on, and on, and on.
 
Compelling evidence that you prejudge LDS beliefs, labeling them as "superstitions"; hence, your mind is closed.

I don't uncritically accept superstitions either.

BTW, you appear to have...skipped over... a bit.

To wit:
The first part of this post was answered in the appropriate thread:http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=10301762#post10301762



I find this claim interesting. Remember me? You may have noticed that I am the one who continually asks you for actual links to the actual versions of the actual sources you claim to be using; further, the one who, when you are not forthcoming with your sources, goes out and finds them and reads them.

I do not recall ever dismissing a single claim about a single one of the myriad anachronisms in the BoM merely because it was posted in an “unreliable source”. I do find it funny how often you cherry-pick sources, endorsing when they appear to agree with you and ignoring when they do not.

Consider the issue of the Hohokam “barley”.

I studied the Casa Grande site, and other Hohokam sites, at ASU. As has been pointed out to you in this very thread (and its predecessors), the “barley” at the Hohokam site is not, in fact, cultivated domestic barley (Hordeum sativa)), but a wild relative of barley(Hordeum pusilum); its supposed hull-lessness is a function, not of biology, but of preparation. The Hohokam had extensive agriculture (they were the first to build a system of irrigation canals in what is now the Valley of the Sun), but they did not cultivate barley; instead, they appear to have opportunistically taken advantage of a wild barley relative.

Even if, arguendo, the Casa Grande site, or some other Hohokam site, were to show signs of actual cultivation of actual barley, that would not be evidence of barley cultivation so extensive that a civilization that “covered the land” for “thousands of years” could have reasonably been thought to have based the value of their minted coinage on the worth of a barleycorn.

Do notice that has nothing to do with who is making that claim that wild barley, opportunistically gleaned at one Hohokam site, “proves” that there are no anachronisms in the BoM (as you would have it); instead, it has to do with the nature of the evidence.

Consider the “Clark Chart”.

Clark lists steelmaking (for instance) in the pre-colombian americas as “confirmed”. His support for that “confirmation” is that “some research” (not identified) appears to indicate that iron may have been hardened into steel at “some sites” (not identified) in the middle east earlier than previously thought. What he does not show as “confirmation” is a single instance of steelmaking tools, or a single steel-capable forge, or any steel weapons or artifacts, in the pre-colombian americas. This has nothing to do with the fact that Clark’s “confirmation” of steelmongery is advanced by a mormon apologist; instead, it has to do with the fact that the “confirmation” is unsupported by any archaeological evidence in either hemisphere.

Consider the horse.

The issue is not that every claim I have ever read, or heard presented, about the use, or even the mere existence, of the horse in the pre-colombian americas turns out to be based on a known and admitted hoax, or supposition and assumption, or ‘god’s’ inability to accurately describe north American fauna; or claims a truly archaic date, or a post-colombian date. The issue is that there is not a single instance of a horse-capable system of roads; of a tack industry; of silage or fodderage; of contemporaneous artistic or totemic representation; or of a single instance of the other, multiple indicia that use of the horse stamps on, even molds into, a culture. Do keep in mind that the horse is to be supposed to have been used by a culture which “covered the land” for “thousands of years”, yet, somehow, managed to leave not a trace of evidence.

Your calumny conveniently fails to mention the actual reason claims of the horse, or cultivated barley, or domestic kine, or compasses, or swine, or steelworking, are rejected: the intellectual bankruptcy of the kinds of things claimed as “evidence”.

It is remarkably silly to characterize reading, and assessing, and analyzing, the tiny bits of “evidence” you have presented; and explaining their shortcomings; as “immediately dismissing” them. Perhaps you should consider getting “up to speed” on how actual research (as opposed to apologetics) is done.



Your judgment is faulty, and is found wanting by the most superficial of considerations. Are you even reading my posts?

I posted a bit of my personal history earlier; suffice it to say that I would, in fact, be delighted to discover new information about the pre-colombian americas. Have you read 1491 yet? For all its flaws, a fascinating book, and thought-provoking. I highly recommend it.

The fact that I do not uncritically accept your superstitions does not speak to my ability to process, and accept, new information; instead, it speaks to the puerility of the superstitions themselves. Show me actual evidence. I will read it, pursue its ramifications, and consider it.

But first, show me actual evidence. Concrete, empirical, objective, non-anecdotal, practical evidence.

(On re-reading, I realize that the problem may simply be that you do not know what “hermetically sealed” means.)



One wonders, en passant, what you mean by this bit. Of which of my “persuasions” do you speak, and what colorable claim do you pretend to make that whatever “persuasion” you have in mind has any effect upon my ability to locate and process evidence; that is, to tell the butter from the water; or to distinguish Arthur from Martha, in the shower, with their signs on?



Careful, your double standard is showing.

Do feel free to demonstrate, with citations to primary sources, what you, personally, think “BYU scholars have discovered about barley and grains, for example, in the pre-Colombian Americas”. In your opinion, have “BYU scholars” “discovered” anything beyond the evidence that wild barley was gleaned (not cultivated) at one of the Hohokam sites (and not, apparently, anywhere else)? Is there, in fact, evidence of domesticated barley cultivation so pervasive that it would be reasonable to believe that a civilization that “covered the land” for “thousands of years” would have used the value of a barleycorn as the basis for their minted currency? I would appreciate it if you would indicate where you think such is chronicled.

Actual evidence would, in fact, be interesting.
 
Not to mention, evidence of the mere existence of 'gods'; evidence that such 'gods' "were as we are" and that we may "become as they are"; evidence that Abraham somehow got his autographic "diary" of his "time in Egypt" into a standard Egyptian funerary text, in "reformed egyptian"; evidence of fifth-century compasses...to name but a few, and the list goes on, and on, and on.

Whoa now, let's keep it in digestible hunks.
 
Then why does your 'god' let single-parent families be formed by the death of a spouse? Should widows and widowers be forced to remarry, or face child abuse charges?
Ol' Joe Smith had the answer to that... at least for the hot widows and daughters.
 
Mormons trampling on the rights of non-Mormons in the name of religion?!?

Shocking!

Utah police raid monster mash party at family fun center to prevent dancing

"We can't dance her! This is Mormon Country!"

The city issued a permit. We applied for a special event permit for a “dance”. It was issued. Then when they had no way to shut it down they produced additional pages to the permit that we were not given on which they had hand written that the dance was not allowed. Not to mention we were on private property, it is a first amendment right to dance, we weren’t playing music loud enough to be heard off the property and when the police were there NO ONE was dancing. They sent 6 officers to make sure no one was dancing! DANCING IS NOT A CRIME.

Wasn't thee someone saying that this sort of thing never happens in Mormon Country?
 
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This is an interesting post and I want to make sure I get it all right. Thus my question:

.....All of this indicated what appears to be incidental contacts no sustained contact.
Is that word supposed to be "not" or did you leave out some additional wording?
 
Mormons trampling on the rights of non-Mormons in the name of religion?!?

Shocking!

Utah police raid monster mash party at family fun center to prevent dancing

"We can't dance her! This is Mormon Country!"



Wasn't thee someone saying that this sort of thing never happens in Mormon Country?

That's strange. Dancing has always been encouraged in the Mormon religion. It sounds like an outsider's assumption that all radical religions must be against dancing, so those weird Mormons must be too. There's got to be some other primary reason they were against the party.

While I can still edit, just so this isn't an evidence-free post...

https://www.lds.org/new-era/2004/08/why-dance?lang=eng

https://www.lds.org/new-era/2009/07/12-dancing-stakes?lang=eng

I suspect it has more to do with the kind of dancing or the atmosphere of the dance, than dancing itself.
 
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That's strange. Dancing has always been encouraged in the Mormon religion. It sounds like an outsider's assumption that all radical religions must be against dancing, so those weird Mormons must be too. There's got to be some other primary reason they were against the party.

While I can still edit, just so this isn't an evidence-free post...

https://www.lds.org/new-era/2004/08/why-dance?lang=eng

https://www.lds.org/new-era/2009/07/12-dancing-stakes?lang=eng

I suspect it has more to do with the kind of dancing or the atmosphere of the dance, than dancing itself.

Honestly, it seems to be less a sectarian issue than a simple case of rampant petty bureaucratic muscle-flexing.
http://www.kutv.com/news/features/t...ot-Monster-Mash-quot-53615.shtml#.VFaoaPnF9F0
 
"Divine disfavor" is linked directly to natural law. You make a distinction where there is none. Example: God looks upon child abuse with disfavor. That fact drives, in part, the Church's position on same-sex marriage in which, if a child is involved, he/she will never have a biological father or a biological mother.


But I wasn't asking about divine disfavor in general, but specifically about divine disfavor resulting in divine retribution or punishment not confined to the perpetrators of the supposed sin, and instead extending to the society that permits such actions. God's personal opinions on such matters might be of interest to theologians in a theological discussion, and the natural consequences of actions are of course of interest to sociologists, but only the prospect of God taking retributive action against people for tolerance of the actions of others would logically justify a civil effort to avoid such retribution by legislating based on scriptural or prophetic claims.
 
This is an interesting post and I want to make sure I get it all right. Thus my question:

Originally Posted by Pacal View Post
.....All of this indicated what appears to be incidental contacts no sustained contact.

Is that word supposed to be "not" or did you leave out some additional wording?

Actually it should have read "All of this indicated what appears to be incidental contacts and no sustained contact."
 
Compelling evidence that you prejudge LDS beliefs, labeling them as "superstitions"; hence, your mind is closed.

I don't uncritically accept superstitions either.

I wonder why you are forthcoming with so little actual information. Janadelle was the same way--is it a technique you are taught?

When, in your opinion, are the exciting pre-colombian events of the BoM to be supposed to have taken place?

Where, in your opinion, are the exciting pre-colombian events of the BoM to be supposed to have taken place?

I would truly, truly appreciate an honest answer.
 
"Divine disfavor" is linked directly to natural law. You make a distinction where there is none. Example: God looks upon child abuse with disfavor. That fact drives, in part, the Church's position on same-sex marriage in which, if a child is involved, he/she will never have a biological father or a biological mother.
Perhaps you mean "and?" I'm pretty sure that same-sex couples can provide one out of two biological parents.
 
Compelling evidence that you prejudge LDS beliefs, labeling them as "superstitions"; hence, your mind is closed.

"Superstition" and "Mythology" are perfectly reasonable and accurate words for discussing religious beliefs. Claiming one's mind is closed simply because they use terminology that does not favor your mythology over that of others is a dodge, not an argument.

I don't uncritically accept superstitions either.

Unless they are superstitions espoused by the LDS, at which point you accept and defend them without question.
 
"Divine disfavor" is linked directly to natural law. You make a distinction where there is none. Example: God looks upon child abuse with disfavor. That fact drives, in part, the Church's position on same-sex marriage in which, if a child is involved, he/she will never have a biological father or a biological mother.

Then you consider adopted children and the children of single parents to be victims of child abuse.

Using your logic, the children of every US Soldier killed in combat are being subjected to child abuse by virtue of being denied the biological parent who died.

How do you plan to address that alleged child abuse?

Assume a child's biological father is dead, and their mother remarries. Is the child abuse sustained by that child better, or worse as a result of the mother remarrying? Your "logic" defines both situations as abusive. which is "worse" by your definition, to have a step-father or no father?

Since you are following a line of logic that has been abandoned by the LDS, how do you justify holding views so divorced from current LDS thinking?
 
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