What a bizarre bit of "reasoning". (Italics in original, bolding mine.)
"Analogously, we know from past experience that the names, ages and sex of victims of crimes are almost invariably printed in newspaper accounts of crimes. In this case, however, the final reports coming from the Connecticut authorities did not include them. That is a very odd aspect of this event, but an attempt has been made to explain it away on the ground of preserving the privacy of the families of the victims. But if there were victims, their families already know they are dead. There is no evident benefit to the families, if it was real, but a major element of the cover up, if it was not."
Does he really think "protecting the privacy of the family" means "not telling the family their child is dead"? Or perhaps he's thinking of the case where names are not published until the family is notified, but is he seriously suggesting this is the only relevant privacy concern?